16 September 2022

Q1.Consider the following pairs of wetlands and their location

1. Renuka Wetland : Himachal Pradesh
2. Harike Wetland : Gujarat
3. Wadhwana Wetland : Punjab
4. Kabartal Wetland : Bihar

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

1. 1, 2, 3
2. 1, 3, 4
3. 1, 4
4. 1, 2, 3, 4

C – EXPLANATION

Wadhwana Wetland is an internationally important wetland situated in Gujarat.Harike Wetland is located in Punjab

Q2. Consider the following statements regarding BioCNG:

1. It is a purified form of biogas with a major content of butane and propane.
2. It can be obtained from pure cellulosic biomass.
3. Increased production of BioCNG in India will help reduce import dependency on petroleum products.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1, 3
2. 3 only
3. 2, 3
4. 1, 2, 3

C – EXPLANATION

Bio-CNG is a purified form of biogas with over 95% pure methane gas. It is similar to natural gas in its composition (97% methane) and energy potential.

While natural gas is a fossil fuel, Bio-CNG is a renewable form of energy produced from agricultural and food-waste.

Bio-CNG is being looked at as an environment-friendly alternative to diesel. This Bio-CNG can be used to power automobiles with the same efficiency as fossil fuel CNG. Bio-CNG has a high calorific value and can be used in blast furnaces; also it can be converted into electricity.

Q3. The ocean has several micronutrients, minerals and trace metals like cadmium or copper. Trace metals are supplied to oceans via

1. Continental shelf interaction
2. Continental run-offs
3. 3.Atmospheric deposition
4. Hydrothermal activities

Select the correct answer code:

1. 1, 2, 3
2. 1, 3, 4
3. 2, 3, 4
4. 1, 2, 3, 4

D – EXPLANATION

Trace metals like cadmium or copper are supplied to oceans via continental run-offs, atmospheric deposition, hydrothermal activities, and continental shelf interaction. They are essential for ocean productivity.

Q4. Consider the following statements regarding Wet-bulb temperature.

1. Wet-bulb temperature is used to measure both heat and humidity of a place.
2. It represents the lowest temperature air can reach by evaporation of water.
3. Generally a dry heatwave is more dangerous than a humid heatwave for human beings.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1, 2
2. 1, 3
3. 2, 3
4. 1, 2, 3

A – EXPLANATION

When human beings feel hot, they cool themselves by sweating. However, if the humidity is too high, sweating no longer works and one risks dangerous overheating. In this case, “wet-bulb” temperature is used to measure both heat and humidity, helping estimate whether conditions are safe for humans or not.

Measured on a different scale compared with normal temperatures, where 35 degrees Celsius is the maximum or threshold limit, wet-bulb temperature of 32 degrees can mean that even fit, acclimatised people will not be able to work easily.

With climate change, the number of such potentially dangerous days, where high heat and humidity combine, are also increasing.

At present, most of India experiences 12 to 66 days annually of this potentially deadly heat and high humidity combination with hotspots along the east coast. A humid heatwave was a lot more dangerous compared with a dry heatwave. While the human skin has a temperature of around 35 degrees Celsius, a wet-bulb with the same heat means sweat can no longer be used to cool the body.

Wet-bulb temperature is measured by wrapping a wet cloth around the bulb of a thermometer. It represents the lowest temperature air can reach by evaporation of water. Internationally, the wet-bulb globe temperature is calculated by using a globe thermometer and additionally accounting for solar radiation and wind speed.

Q5.  Nigeen Lake is located in

1. Ladakh
2. Jammu and Kashmir
3. Himachal Pradesh
4. Uttarakhand

B – EXPLANATION

Nigeen Lake is a mildly eutrophic lake located in Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir.

Q6. Chillai Kalan is the name given to 40-day period of harsh winter in

1. Uttarakhand
2. Himachal Pradesh
3. Kashmir Valley
4. Sikkim

C – EXPLANATION

Kashmir is in a deep freeze as the 40-day harshest spell of winter, locally called ‘chillai kalan’.

Q7. Consider the following statements regarding Member of Parliament Local Area Development (MPLAD) Scheme.

1. MPs only recommend projects, but the final choice and implementation rests with the district authorities.
2. The scheme is administered by Ministry of Statistics and Programme. Implementation (MOSPI).
3. As per the guidelines, 100 percent utilisation of the funds allocated is mandatory.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1, 2
2. 2 only
3. 2, 3
4. 1, 3

A – EXPLANATION

The scheme is administered by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme. Implementation (MOSPI). MPs only recommend projects, but the final choice and implementation rests with the district authorities.

Observations made by the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India, in a report make it clear: Expenditure incurred by the executing agencies being less than amount booked. Utilisation of funds between 49 to 90% of the booked amount.

Q8.  Consider the following statements regarding Pre-Legislative Consultation Policy (PLCP).

1. The Pre-Legislative Consultation Policy (PLCP) mandates that whenever the Government makes any laws, it must place a draft version of it in the public domain.
2. The policy also says that, a note explaining the law in simple language and justifying the proposal, its financial implication, impact on the environment and fundamental rights should be uploaded.
3. The PLCP was adopted through an act of Parliament.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1, 2
2. 1 only
3. 1, 3
4. 1, 2, 3

A – EXPLANATION

The Pre-Legislative Consultation Policy (PLCP) 2014 mandates that whenever the Government makes any laws (bills, rules, regulations etc.), it must place a draft version of it in the public domain for at least 30 days.

The policy also says that along with the draft, a note explaining the law in simple language and justifying the proposal, its financial implication, impact on the environment and fundamental rights, a study on the social and financial costs of the bill, etc. should be uploaded.

The respective departments should also upload the summary of all the feedback that they receive on the circulated draft.

The PLCP was formulated based on the broad recommendations of the National Advisory Council headed by Sonia Gandhi (2013) and the National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2002).

It aimed to create an institutionalized space for public participation in law-making processes.

This policy provides a forum for citizens and relevant stakeholders to interact with the policymakers in the executive during the initial stages of law-making. The absence of a statutory or constitutional right has watered down its effect.

Q9.  Consider the following statements regarding public spending on health.

1. In India, the total public spending on health as a percentage of GDP is around 2.5% of GDP.
2. The Union government spends around a third of the total government spending whereas the majority is borne by the States.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

B – EXPLANATION

Total public spending on health as a percentage of GDP has increased to a historic high of 1.35% of GDP, finally breaking through the 1%-1.2% mark of GDP.

The Union government traditionally spends around a third of the total government spending whereas the majority is borne by the States.

Q10.  Consider the following statements regarding Sustainable Alternative Towards Affordable Transportation (SATAT) scheme.

1. It aims to extract economic value from bio-mass waste in the form of Compressed Bio Gas (CBG) and bio-manure.
2. The initiative was launched by the Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas in association with Public Sector Undertaking (PSU) Oil Marketing Companies (OMC).
3. Rural households are incentivised to supply locally available biomass including crop stubble or dung cakes to Compressed Bio-Gas (CBG) production plants being set up under the SATAT scheme.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 1, 2
3. 1, 3
4. 1, 2, 3

B – EXPLANATION

Sustainable Alternative Towards Affordable Transportation (SATAT) is an initiative aimed at setting up of Compressed Bio-Gas (CBG) production plants and make it available in the market for use in automotive fuels by inviting Expression of Interest from potential entrepreneurs.

The initiative was launched in October 2018 by the Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas in association with Public Sector Undertaking (PSU) Oil Marketing Companies (OMC) viz. Indian Oil Corporation Ltd., Bharat Petroleum Corporation Ltd. and Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Ltd.

The government of India, under the SATAT initiatives, envisages setting up of 5000 CBG plants by 2023-24 with the production target of 15 MMT. Statement 3 – There is no such provision in the scheme.

Q11.  For enhancing India’s Manufacturing Capabilities and Exports, the government implements Production Linked Incentive Scheme for which of the following sectors?

1. Pharmaceuticals Drugs
2. White Goods (ACs and LEDs)
3. Toy industry
4. Textiles and Apparel
5. Food products

Select the correct answer code:

1. 1, 2, 3, 4
2. 1, 2, 4, 5
3. 1, 2, 4
4. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

B  – EXPLANATION

Keeping in view India’s vision of becoming ‘Atmanirbhar’ and to enhance India’s Manufacturing   Capabilities and Exports, an outlay of INR 1.97 lakh crore has been announced in Union Budget 2021-22 for PLI schemes for 13 key sectors for a period of 5 years starting from fiscal year (FY) 2021- 22.

These 13 sectors includes already existing 3 sectors named

(i) Mobile Manufacturing and Specified Electronic Components,

(ii) Critical Key Starting materials/Drug Intermediaries & Active Pharmaceutical Ingredients, and     (iii) Manufacturing of Medical Devices and 10 new key sectors which have been approved by the Union Cabinet recently in November 2020.

These 10 key sectors are:

(i) Automobiles and Auto Components,

(ii) Pharmaceuticals Drugs,

(iii) Specialty Steel,

(iv) Telecom & Networking Products,

(v) Electronic/Technology Products,

(vi) White Goods (ACs and LEDs),

(vii) Food Products,

(viii) Textile Products: MMF segment and technical textiles,

(ix) High efficiency solar PV modules, and

(x) Advanced Chemistry Cell (ACC) Battery.

The Toy Association of India (TAI), that has over 500 toy manufacturers as its members, also said getting the industry under the PLI scheme was critical for its growth.

Q12.  Consider the following statements regarding National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF).

1. National Institutional Ranking Framework ranks only the centrally funded institutions such as the Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs) and central universities.
2. NIRF was adopted by the Ministry of Education and is the first-ever effort by the government to rank higher education institutions (HEIs) in the country.
3. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 B – EXPLANATION

The National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) was approved by the Ministry of Education (Erstwhile Ministry of Human Resource Development) in September 2015.

It is the first-ever effort by the government to rank Higher Education Institutions (HEIs) in the country. Participation in NIRF was made compulsory for all government-run educational institutions in 2018. It ranks State-run higher education institutions (HEIs) together with centrally funded institutions such as the Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs), the Indian Institute of Science, the National Institutes of Technology, central universities, etc.

Q13. National Institute Ranking Framework (NIRF) assesses education institutions on which of the following parameters?

1. Teaching, learning and resources
2. Research and professional practices
3. Graduation outcomes
4. Outreach and inclusivity

Select the correct answer code:

1. 1, 2, 3
2. 1, 2
3. 1, 2, 4
4. 1, 2, 3, 4

D – EXPLANATION

In order to be ranked, all education institutions are assessed on five parameters: teaching, learning and resources, research and professional practices, graduation outcomes, outreach and inclusivity, and perception.

Q14. Consider the following statements.

1.      Majority of the dams in India were built during early 20th century.
2. The ownership of dams and their maintenance predominantly falls in the purview of the States. 3. Central Water Commission (CWC) is the apex body that advise on issues of dam safety.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1, 2
2. 1, 3
3. 2, 3
4. 1, 2, 3

C – EXPLANATION

India ranks third globally with 5,745 large dams in operation. According to the National Register of Large Dams prepared in June 2019 by the Central Dam Safety Organisation (CDSO) in the Central Water Commission (CWC), 67 dams were built prior to the 20th century and 1,039 dams during the first 70 years of the 20th century.

Even though the Central Water Commission (CWC), along with the Central Dam Safety Organisation (CDSO), has been functioning as the apex body to advise States on issues of dam safety, there is no specific Central law that governs the subject, given the situation that the ownership of dams and their maintenance predominantly falls in the purview of the States.

Q15. Consider the following statements regarding Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI).

1. Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) was established through an act of parliament. 2. One of the objectives of TRAI is to provide a fair and transparent policy environment promoting a level playing field amongst players and facilitating fair competition.
2. TRAI regulates telecom services but does not have the power to fix/revise tariffs for telecom services, which is done by the Union Ministry of Finance.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 2 only
2. 1, 2
3. 2, 3
4. 1, 2, 3

 B – EXPLANATION

The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) was, established in 1997 by an Act of Parliament, called the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Act, 1997, to regulate telecom services, including fixation/revision of tariffs for telecom services which were earlier vested in the Central Government.

One of the main objectives of TRAI is to provide a fair and transparent policy environment which promotes a level playing field and facilitates fair competition. The TRAI Act was amended by an ordinance, effective from 24 January 2000, establishing a Telecommunications Dispute Settlement and Appellate Tribunal (TDSAT) to take over the adjudicatory and disputes functions from TRAI.

Q16. Consider the following statements regarding Essential Commodities Act.

1. The Essential Commodities Act is an act of Parliament of India which was established to ensure the delivery of certain commodities or products, the supply of which if obstructed owing to hoarding or blackmarketing would affect the normal life of the people.
2. The states can include new commodities as and when the need arises, and only the centre can take them off the list once the situation improves.
3. The act empowers Central and State Governments concurrently to control production, supply and distribution of certain commodities when their prices rise.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

1. 2 only
2. 2, 3
3. 1, 3
4. 1, 2

A – EXPLANATION

The Essential Commodities Act is an act of Parliament of India which was established to ensure the delivery of certain commodities or products, the supply of which if obstructed owing to hoarding or blackmarketing would affect the normal life of the people.

Additionally, the government can also fix the maximum retail price (MRP) of any packaged product that it declares an “essential commodity”. The Centre can include new commodities as and when the need arises, and take them off the list once the situation improves.

The act empowers Central and State Governments concurrently to control production, supply and distribution of certain commodities in view of rising pricing. When difference arise between Centre and States, the act specifies that the Centre will prevail.

Q17. Consider the following statements.

1. The bulk of semiconductor manufacturing and supply capability is concentrated in countries like Taiwan, South Korea, U.S., and Japan.
2. India’s Production Linked Incentive scheme provides 100% of the cost of setting up greenfield semiconductor fabs by way of fiscal support.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 A – EXPLANATION

The bulk of semiconductor manufacturing and supply capability concentrated in a handful of countries including Taiwan, South Korea, U.S., Japan and, more recently, China.

Production Linked Incentive scheme intends to give only 50% of the cost of setting up at least two greenfield semiconductor fabs by way of fiscal support.

Q18. Consider the following statements.

1. The Sinho Commission was constituted to recommend welfare measures for the economically weaker sections (EWS) category, including reservation.
2. At present persons who are not covered under the scheme of reservation for SCs, STs and other backward classes (OBCs), and whose family has gross annual income below Rs 8 lakh, are identified as EWSs for benefit of reservation.
3. The ceiling for determining EWS is the same as the limit for determining the OBC “creamy layer” for reservation.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1, 2
2. 2 only
3. 2, 3
4. 1, 2, 3

D – EXPLANATION

The ceiling for determining EWS (Rs 8 lakh) is the same as the limit for determining the other backward classes (OBC) “creamy layer” for reservation for the children of people outside of government.

Under the 2019 notification, persons who are not covered under the scheme of reservation for SCs, STs and OBCs, and whose family has gross annual income below Rs 8 lakh, are to be identified as EWSs for benefit of reservation.

EWS reservation was granted based on the recommendations of a commission headed by Major General (retd) S R Sinho.

The Sinho Commission recommended that all below poverty line (BPL) families within the general category as notified from time to time, and also all families whose annual family income from all sources is below the taxable limit, should be identified as EBCs (economically backward classes).

Q19. Consider the following statements regarding Cooperative Societies.

1. Under the Indian Constitution, Cooperatives are a concurrent subject.
2. In India, there are many Cooperative societies whose members and areas of operation are spread across more than one state.
3. At present the Ministry of Agriculture is responsible for administrative, legal and policy framework for strengthening the cooperative movement in India.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1, 2
2. 2 only
3. 2, 3
4. 1, 2, 3

D – EXPLANATION

Cooperatives are a state subject, but there are many societies such as those for sugar and milk, banks, milk unions etc whose members and areas of operation are spread across more than one state.

The Ministry of Co-operation is a ministry under the Government of India which was formed in July 2021.

The ministry provides a separate administrative, legal and policy framework for strengthening the cooperative movement in the country.

Q20.  Digital news media and over-the-top platforms (OTT Platforms) in India are regulated by

1. Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
2. Ministry of Home Affairs
3. Ministry of Information and broadcasting
4. They are self-regulated

C – EXPLANATION

Digital news media and over-the-top platforms (OTT Platforms) in India are regulated by Ministry of information and broadcasting, based on the Information Technology (Guidelines for Intermediaries and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules 2021 (Rules).

Q21. Consider the following statements with respect to Indian polity:

1. Expression of various kinds of social divisions in politics results in cancelling one another out and thus strengthening democracy.
2. It is possible that a person can have multiple identities.
3. Social divisions exist in only big countries like India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

 Explanation:

• In a democracy, political expression of social divisions is very normal and can be healthy. Expression of various kinds of social divisions in politics often results in their cancelling one another out and thus reducing intensity. This leads to strengthening of a democracy. If the people see that their identities are multiple and are complementary with the national identity.
• This is how most people in our country see their identity: they think of themselves as Indian as well as belonging to a state or a language group or a social or religious community. Social divisions of one kind or another exist in most countries. It does not matter whether the country is small or big.

Q22. In light of Secular nature of Indian State which of the following are true:

1. There is no official religion for the Indian state.
2. The Constitution provides to all individuals and communities freedom to profess, practice and propagate any religion, or not to follow any.
3. The Constitution prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion.
4. Constitution does not allows the state to intervene in the matters of religion in order to ensure equality within religious communities.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 1, 3 and 4 only
3. 2, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:

Communalism was and continues to be one of the major challenges to democracy in our country. The makers of our Constitution were aware of this challenge. That is why they chose the model of a secular state. This choice was reflected in several constitutional provisions: There is no official religion for the Indian state. Unlike the status of Buddhism in Sri Lanka, that of Islam in Pakistan and that of Christianity in England, our Constitution does not give a special status to any religion. The Constitution provides to all individuals and communities freedom to profess, practice and propagate any religion, or not to follow any. The Constitution prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion. At the same time the Constitution allows the state to intervene in the matters of religion in order to ensure equality within religious communities. For example, it bans untouchability.

Q23. Consider the following statements regarding the Preamble of the constitution?

1. Preamble is not a part of Constitution.
2. Provisions of the Preamble can be enforced in a Court of law in special circumstances.
3. The Preamble is a source of power to legislature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 1, 2 and 3
4. None of the above 

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Preamble is a part of the Constitution. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Preamble cannot be enforced in a Court of law in a special circumstance. Statement 3 is incorrect. The preamble is the source of authority of the Constitution. The Preamble states that the Constitution derives its authority from the people of India.

Q24. Consider the following statements about the Preamble of the Constitution:

1. The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is based on the ‘Objectives Resolution’, drafted and moved by Pandit Nehru.
2. It declares the nature of the Indian state.
3. It envisages political as well as social ideals.
4. The Preamble is the source of authority of the Constitution.

Select the correct answer using the codes below?

1.     1 and 2 only
2. 1, 2 and 3 only
3. 1, 2 and 4 only
4. All of the above

Explanation:

The Constituent Assembly is the Objectives Resolution (the resolution that defined the aims of the Assembly) moved by Nehru in 1946. This resolution encapsulated the aspirations and values behind the Constitution. What the previous section terms as substantive provisions of the constitution is inspired by and summed up by the values incorporated in the Objectives Resolution. Based on this resolution, our Constitution gave institutional expression to these fundamental commitments: equality, liberty, democracy, sovereignty and a cosmopolitan identity. Thus, our Constitution is not merely a maze of rules and procedures, but a moral commitment to establish a government that will fulfil the many promises that the nationalist movement held before the people. The preamble declares the source of authority of the constitution to be the people of India.

Q25. Which of the following comprise the philosophy of Indian Constitution:

1. Liberal
2. Democratic
3. Egalitarian
4. Secular

Select the correct answer using the code below?

1. 1, 2 and 4 only
2. 2, 3 and 4 only
3. 1, 2 and 3 only
4. All of the above

Explanation:

It is hard to describe this philosophy in one word. It resists any single label because it is liberal, democratic, egalitarian, secular, and federal, open to community values, sensitive to the needs of religious and linguistic minorities as well as historically disadvantaged groups, and committed to building a common national identity.

 Q26. Which of the following statements are correct, regarding the Preamble of our Constitution?

1. It is a part of the Constitution but not part of Basic Structure.
2. It is not a part of the Constitution and not part of Basic Structure.
3. It is a part of the Constitution and also part of Basic Structure.
4. It is not a part of the Constitution but part of Basic Structure.

Explanation:

• PREAMBLE AS PART OF THE CONSTITUTION: One of the controversies about the Preamble is as to whether it is a part of the Constitution or not. In the Berubari Union case (1960), the Supreme Court said that the Preamble shows the general purposes behind the several provisions in the Constitution, and is thus a key to the minds of the makers of the Constitution. Further, where the terms used in any article are ambiguous or capable of more than one meaning, some assistance at interpretation may be taken from the objectives enshrined in the Preamble. Despite this recognition of the significance of the Preamble, the Supreme Court specifically opined that Preamble is not a part of the Constitution. In the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), the Supreme Court rejected the earlier opinion and held that Preamble is a part of the Constitution. It observed that the Preamble is of extreme importance and the Constitution should be read and interpreted in the light of the grand and noble vision expressed in the Preamble.
• Like any other part of the Constitution, the Preamble was also enacted by the Constituent Assembly, but, after the rest of the Constitution was already enacted. The reason for inserting the Preamble at the end was to ensure that it was in conformity with the Constitution as adopted by the Constituent Assembly. While forwarding the Preamble for votes, the president of the Constituent Assembly said, ‘The question is that Preamble stands part of the Constitution’. The motion was then adopted. Hence, the current opinion held by the Supreme Court that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution, is in consonance with the opinion of the founding fathers of the Constitution. Also it is to be noted that while the features enshrined in the Preamble form a part of the Basic Structure, the Preamble as such is not a part of it.

Q27. Consider the following statements about the Preamble of the Constitution:

1. In the event of a conflict between the Preamble and a specific provision of the Constitution, the former will prevail.
2. The Preamble has been amended only once.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

1. After the Keshavananda Bharati Case, the current opinion held by the Supreme Court that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution, is in consonance with the opinion of the founding fathers of the Constitution. However, two things should be noted:
2. The Preamble is neither a source of power to legislature nor a prohibition upon the powers of legislature.
3. It is non-justiciable, that is, its provisions are not enforceable in courts of law.

The preamble has been amended only once- by the 42^nd amendment act, 1976.

Q28. When was the Constitution of India adopted as evident in the Preamble?

1. January 26th, 1950
2. November 26th, 1949
3. August 15th, 1947
4. None of the above

Explanation:

• The motion on Draft Constitution was declared as passed on November 26, 1949, and received the signatures of the members and the president. Out of a total 299 members of the Assembly, only 284 were actually present on that day and signed the Constitution. This is also the date mentioned in the Preamble as the date on which the people of India in the Constituent Assembly adopted, enacted and gave to themselves this Constitution. The Constitution as adopted on November 26, 1949, contained a Preamble, 395 Articles and 8 Schedules. The Preamble was enacted after the entire Constitution was already enacted.

 Q29. Which of the following are included in the meaning of the term Equality in our Constitution?

1. From the President of the country to a domestic worker has to obey the same laws.
2. No person can be discriminated against on the basis of their religion, race, and caste, place of birth or whether they are female or male.
3. Every person has access to all public places including playgrounds, hotels, shops and markets
4. All are equal and no person can be discriminated on any ground from the other.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1. 1 and 2 Only
2. 3 and 4 Only
3. 1, 2 and 3 Only
4. All of the above

Explanation:

This recognition of equality includes some of the following provisions in the Constitution: first that every person is equal before the law. What this means is that every person, from the President of the country to Kanta, a domestic worker, has to obey the same laws. Second, no person can be discriminated against on the basis of their religion, race, caste, place of birth or whether they are female or male. Third, every person has access to all public places including playgrounds, hotels, shops and markets. All persons can use publicly available wells, roads and bathing ghats. Fourth, untouchability has been abolished. Though religion, race, caste, place of birth are no grounds for discrimination, but positive discrimination can be done on reasonable grounds for the benefit of masses.

Q30. You will not find which of the following ‘ideals’ or ‘values’ in the Preamble of the Constitution?

1. Liberty
2. Fraternity
3. Rationality
4. Justice

Explanation:

WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC and to secure to all its citizens: JUSTICE, social, economic and political; LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship; EQUALITY of status and of opportunity; and to promote among all FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation. Rationality and scientific temper are hinted at in the Fundamental Duties in Part IV of the constitution.

Q31. Consider the following order of sequence in which they occur in the Preamble of India:

1.Democratic

2.Integrity

3.Equality

4.Political

5.Fraternity

Select correct option from below?

1. 1-3-4-5-2
2. 1-4-3-5-2
3. 5-2-1-3-4
4. 2-1-4-3-5

Explanation:

WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC and to secure to all its citizens: JUSTICE, social, economic and political; LIBERTY, of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship; EQUALITY of status and of opportunity; and to promote among them all FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation; IN OUR CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY this twenty-sixth day of November, 1949, DO HEREBY ADOPT, ENACT AND GIVE TO OURSELVES THIS CONSTITUTION.

Q32. Consider the following statements relating to the difference between the Preamble and the rest of the Constitution:

1. The Preamble is not an essential part of the Constitution as opposed to the rest of the Constitution.
2. The Preamble pertains to the realm of what the law “ought to be” and the rest of the Constitution pertains to “What the law is.”

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

In the Kesavanand Bharti case (1973) the Supreme Court held that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution and it is of extreme importance. The Constitution should be read and interpreted in the light of the grand and noble vision expressed in the Preamble. Statement 1 is correct because the Preamble is a part, but not an ‘essential‘ part of the Constitution.

Q33. The historic ‘Objectives Resolution’ was passed in?

1. Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress
2. Constituent Assembly in 1946
3. All Parties Conference called after the Cabinet Mission Plan
4. A Meeting which declared the Mountbatten Plan

 Explanation:

In December, 1946, Jawaharlal Nehru moved the historic ‘Objectives Resolution’ in the Assembly. It laid down the fundamentals and philosophy of the constitutional structure. It read:It included the major values and ideals of sovereignty, republic, fundamental rights, directive principles, non-interference etc.It sought to secure to ideals mentioned in the Preamble.It provided for adequate safeguards for minorities, backward and tribal areas, and depressed and other backward classes.This Resolution was unanimously adopted by the Assembly on January 22, 1947. It influenced the eventual shaping of the constitution through all its subsequent stages. Its modified version forms the Preamble of the present Constitution.

Q34. Which of the following words are attached to the term “Republic” in the Preamble?

1.Sovereign

2.Parliamentary

3.Secular

4.Federal

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:

“We, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC and to secure to all its citizens:JUSTICE, Social, Economic and Political;LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship;EQUALITY of status and of opportunity; and to promote among them all;FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation;IN OUR CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY this twenty-sixth day of November, 1949, do HEREBY ADOPT, ENACT AND GIVE TO OURSELVES THIS CONSTITUTION”

 Q35. India ceased to be a British dominion on?

1. The passage of the Indian Independence Act, 1947
2. August 15, 1947
3. January 26, 1950
4. Day of swearing in of Independent India’s first Governor- General

Explanation:

Till the passage of the Indian Independence Act, 1947, India was a dependency (colony) of the British Empire. From August 15, 1947 to January 26, 1950, India’s political status was that of a dominion in the British Commonwealth of Nations.India ceased to be a British dominion on January 26, 1950, by declaring herself a sovereign republic. However, Pakistan continued to be a British Dominion until 1956.India also decided to become a member of the commonwealth, however this did not affect India’s independence.

Q36. Which of these provisions of the Constitution reveal the secular character of the Indian State?

1.Preamble

2.Directive Principles of State Policy

3.Fundamental Rights

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

1. 2 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1: The term ‘secular’ was added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976. The Preamble secures to all citizens of India liberty of belief, faith and worship. Statement 2: The State shall endeavour to secure for all the citizens a Uniform Civil Code (Article 44) is mentioned in DPSP – Part IV. Statement 3: The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or equal protection of the laws (Article 14). The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on the ground of religion (Article 15). Equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters of public employment (Article 16). All persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice and propagate any religion (Article 25). Every religious denomination or any of its section shall have the right to manage its religious affairs (Article 26). Similarly Articles 27-30 also uphold values of secularism.

Q37. The Parliament cannot amend those provisions which form the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution. Which of these features have been mentioned in the constitution as a part of its ‘basic structure’?

1.Federalism

2.Secularism

3.Judicial Review

4.Liberty

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1, 3 and 4 only
3. 2 and 4 only
4. None of the above

Explanation:

• Even though the basic structure doctrine was given by the SC, it is yet to define or clarify as to what constitutes the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution. It is not mentioned anywhere in the constitution, and our understanding of the basic structure comes from the various judgements of the court.So, all statements are wrong.
• The following have emerged as ‘basic features’ of the Constitution
• Supremacy of the Constitution; Sovereign, democratic and republican nature of the Indian polity; Secular character of the Constitution
• Separation of powers between the legislature, the executive and the judiciary; Federal character of the Constitution; Unity and integrity of the nation; Welfare state (socio-economic justice)
• Judicial review; Freedom and dignity of the individual; Parliamentary system; Rule of law; Harmony and balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles; Principle of equality
• Free and fair elections; Independence of Judiciary; Limited power of Parliament to amend the Constitution; Effective access to justice; Principle of reasonableness; Powers of the Supreme Court under Articles 32, 136, 141 and 142

Q38. Which of the following gives effect to the objective of the Preamble to secure for all its citizen equality, liberty and justice?

1. Fundamental Rights
2. Directive Principles of State Policy
3. Fundamental Duties
4. Power of Judicial Review

Explanation:

In India, like most other democracies in the world, rights are mentioned in the Constitution. Some rights which are fundamental to our life are given a special status. They are called Fundamental Rights. The Preamble to our Constitution talks about securing for all its citizens equality, liberty and justice. Fundamental Rights put this promise into effect. They are an important basic feature of India‘s Constitution.

Q39. In India, the concept of Secularism connotes:

1. Religion and state must be strictly separated.
2. Freedom of religion of both individuals and communities.

Select the correct answer using the code given below?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• Western conception of secularism means mutual exclusion of state and religion in order to protect values such as individual freedom and citizenship rights of individuals. It means that religion and state must be strictly separated. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. Indian concept of secularism includes
• The Indian Constitution grants rights to all religious communities such as the right to establish and maintain their educational institutions. Freedom of religion in India means the freedom of religion of both individuals and communities. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• India had religiously sanctioned customs such as untouchability which deprived individuals of the most basic dignity and self-respect. Such customs were so deeply rooted and pervasive that without active state intervention, there was no hope of their dissolution. The state simply had to interfere in the affairs of religion. Such intervention was not always negative. The state could help religious communities by giving aid to educational institutions run by them. Thus, the state may help or hinder religious communities depending on which mode of action promotes values such as freedom and equality.

Q40. Consider the following statements regarding Preamble to Indian Constitution:

1. It is based on the Objective Resolution moved by Jawaharlal Nehru in the constituent assembly.
2. It is not a part of the Constitution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is based on the ‘Objectives Resolution’, drafted and moved by Jawaharlal Nehru, and adopted by the Constituent Assembly. Statement 2 is not correct. The question as to whether the Preamble can be amended under Article 368 of the Constitution arose for the first time in the historic case of Kesavananda Bharati (1973). It was urged that the Preamble cannot be amended as it is not a part of the Constitution. The petitioner contended that the amending power in Article 368 cannot be used to destroy or damage the basic elements or the fundamental features of the Constitution, which are enshrined in the Preamble. The Supreme Court, however, held that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution. The Court stated that the opinion tendered by it in the Berubari Union (1960)in this regard was wrong, and held that The Preamble can be amended, subject to the condition that no amendment is done to the ‘basic features’. In other words, the Court held that the basic elements or the fundamental features of the Constitution as contained in the Preamble cannot be altered by an amendment under Article 368.N The Preamble has been amended only once so far, in 1976, by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, which has added three new words – Socialist, Secular and Integrity to the Preamble. This amendment was held to be valid.