14 October 2022

1.Consider the following statements regarding All India Consumer Price Index (CPI):

1. It is released by the National Statistical Office (NSO), Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI).
2. It is calculated using 2011 as the base year.
3. It is an inflation indicator that measures change in the overall price level of goods before they are sold at retail.

 Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2
3. 1 and 3
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

• CPI is a metric that measures retail inflation by collecting data on the prices of goods and services that are consumed by the retail population of the country.

Statement 1 is correct.

• The National Statistical Office (NSO), Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation releases CPI.
• CPI is released for all-India and States/UTs separately for rural, urban and combined (national).

Statement 2 is incorrect.

• CPI is calculated using 2012 as a base year.

Statement 3 is incorrect.

• A wholesale price index (WPI) is the inflation indicator that measures change in the overall price level of goods before they are sold at retail.

• A Consumer Price Index (CPI) is designed to measure the changes over time in general level of retail prices of selected goods and services that households purchase for the purpose of consumption.
• Such changes affect the real purchasing power of consumers’ income and their welfare.

 Source: PIB

2. Consider the following statements about Sloth Bear

1. Sloth bears are a myrmecophagous species of bears found in India
2. It is listed as an endangered species as per IUCN Red List
3. Sloth bears are known for Pede marking

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 Only
2. 2 and 3 Only
3. 1 and 3 Only
4. All of the Above

Explanation

• Sloth bear is a unique bear species found in India. It is the least researched bear species and is listed as ‘vulnerable’ on the IUCN Red List.
• The appearance of this bear is quite similar to that of the Asiatic Black bear. There are a few differences, though, that one can look out for. While Sloth bears have shaggy fur, Black bears tend to have smoother and shorter fur. Black bears also have more rounded ears (similar to that of Mickey Mouse) while Sloth bears have long, unruly hair on their ears.
• While other bear species may enjoy dining on fruits, fish and other animals, Sloth bears are myrmecophagous, meaning, they find bugs and termites to be their most sought after mealThese bears too are omnivorous and also eat fruits when available, but their dentistry and physiology are perfectly formed to eat termites.
• Another notable fact about Sloth bears is how they use scent trails to communicate. Known as pede-marking, this method of chemical communication happens when the bear uses the pedal glands on its feet to secrete certain scents.
• Unlike other bears that use dens for hibernation, Sloth bears do not actually hibernate.
• The Sloth Bear was assessed for the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species in 2016 and has been listed as ‘Vulnerable’. It is protected under Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
• Wildlife SOS India involved in sloth bear protection, rescue and rehabilitation for over two decades, in collaboration with IUCN, has declared October 12 as ‘World Sloth Bear Day’ to promote the conservation and protection of this unique bear species.

3. Consider the following statements regarding the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES):

1. It is an international agreement between governments which aims is to ensure that international trade in specimens of wild animals and plants does not threaten the survival of the species.
2. CITES agreement is not legally binding.
3. Species covered by CITES are listed in four Appendices, according to the degree of protection they need.

 Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

1. 1 and 3 Only
2. 2 and 3 Only
3. 1 and 2 Only
4. None of the Above

 Explanation

Statement 1 is correct.

• CITES (the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora) is an international agreement between governments.
• Its aim is to ensure that international trade in specimens of wild animals and plants does not threaten the survival of the species.
• CITES was drafted as a result of a resolution adopted in 1963 at a meeting of members of IUCN (The World Conservation Union).

Statement 2 is incorrect.

• CITES is an international agreement to which States and regional economic integration organizations adhere voluntarily.
• States that have agreed to be bound by the Convention (‘joined’ CITES) are known as Parties.
• Although CITES is legally binding on the Parties – in other words they have to implement the Convention – it does not take the place of national laws.
• Rather it provides a framework to be respected by each Party, which has to adopt its own domestic legislation to ensure that CITES is implemented at the national level.

Statement 3 is incorrect.

• The species covered by CITES are listed in three appendices, according to the degree of protection they need.
• Appendices I and II
  • Appendix I includes species threatened with extinction. Trade in specimens of these species is permitted only in exceptional circumstances.
  • Appendix II includes species not necessarily threatened with extinction, but in which trade must be controlled in order to avoid utilization incompatible with their survival.
• Appendix III
  • This Appendix contains species that are protected in at least one country, which has asked other CITES Parties for assistance in controlling the trade. Changes to Appendix III follow a distinct procedure from changes to Appendices I and II, as each Party’s is entitled to make unilateral amendments to it.

 Source: Indian Express

4. Consider the following statements regarding the Places of Worship Act,

1991:

1. It allows for the conversion of religious places of worship into different faiths through executive order.
2. Provisions of the Act apply to places of worship of all religions in India and have no exemption to any specific place of worship.

 Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 Only
2. 2 Only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect.

• Places of Worship Act, 1991 prohibits the conversion of a religious place of worship into a place of worship of a different religion or denomination and instructs the State to preserve the nature of places of worship as they existed on August 15, 1947.
• August 15, 1947 is considered as cut-off date as Indian Independence was a ‘watershed moment in history’.
• The Act also ended all pending cases and proceedings regarding conversion of religious character of a place of worship as well as barred any fresh appeals in future.
• But legal proceedings could be initiated if the change of religious character of the place of worship was done after 15th August 1947.

Statement 2 is incorrect.

• The Act explicitly exempted from its purview:
  • Ayodhya/ Ram janmabhoomi dispute
  • Any place of worship which is an ancient and historical monument, or an archaeological site covered by the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, 1958.
  • A suit that has been finally settled or disposed of.
  • Any dispute that has been settled by the parties or conversion of any place that took place by acquiescence before the Act commenced.

 Source: Indian Express

5. Section 66A of the IT act is related to which of the following matter?

1. Punishment for sending offensive messages through communication service.
2. Punishment for cheating by personation by using computer resource.
3. Punishment for dishonestly receiving stolen computer resource or communication device.
4. Punishment for cyber terrorism

Explanation

• In India, the Information Technology (IT) Act, 2000, as amended from time to time, governs all activities related to the use of computer resources.
• It covers all ‘intermediaries’ who play a role in the use of computer resources and electronic records.

Section 66A

• Section 66A gave authorities the power to arrest anyone accused of posting content on social media that could be deemed ‘offensive’.
• As per the said section, a person could be convicted if proved on the charges of sending any ‘information that is grossly offensive or has menacing character’.
• It also made it an offence to send any information that the sender knows to be false, but for the purpose of annoyance, inconvenience, danger, obstruction, insult, injury, criminal intimidation, enmity, hatred or ill-will, through a computer or electronic device.
• The penalty prescribed for the above was up to three years’ imprisonment with fine.
• The law was declared unconstitutional by Supreme Court for “being violative of Article 19(1)(a) and not saved under Article 19(2).” Article 19(1)(a) gives people the right to speech and expression whereas 19(2) accords the state the power to impose “reasonable restrictions” on the exercise of this right.

 Source: Indian Express

 6.Living Planet Report is released by Zoological Society of London in collaboration with which of the following organisations?

IUCN

UNEP

WWF

OECD

 Explanation

• Living Planet Index/Report is a collaboration between two major conservation organizations, the World Wide Fund for Nature and the Zoological Society of London.

 The Living Planet Report 2022:

• The Living Planet Report 2022 is a comprehensive study of trends in global biodiversity and the health of the planet.
• This flagship WWF publication reveals an average decline of 69% in species populations since 1970.
• The highest decline (94 per cent) was in the Latin America and the Caribbean region,
• Africa recorded a 66 per cent fall in its wildlife populations from 1970-2018 and the Asia Pacific 55 per cent, according to the WWF report.
• Freshwater species populations globally reduced by 83 per cent, confirming that the planet is experiencing a “biodiversity and climate crisis”,
• While conservation efforts are helping, urgent action is required if we are to reverse nature loss.

 Source: Indian Express

 7.Consider the following statements regarding POSHAN Abhiyaan:

1. It is an umbrella scheme to improve the nutritional outcomes for children, pregnant women and lactating mothers.
2. It aims to reduce child stunting, underweight and anaemia among children (and young females) by 2 percentage points per annum.
3. It is under the Ministry of Health and Family Affairs.

 Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 Only
2. 1 and 2 Only
3. 1,2 and 3
4. 2 and 3 Only

 Explanation

Statement 1 is correct.

• POSHAN Abhiyaan is Government of India’s flagship programme to improve nutritional outcomes for children under 6 years of age, pregnant women and lactating mothers.
• Launched by Hon’ble Prime Minister, POSHAN (Prime Minister’s Overarching Scheme for Holistic Nutrition) Abhiyaan aims to address the challenge of malnutrition in a mission-mode.

• Statement 2 is incorrect.

• It aims to reduce child stunting, underweight and low birth weight by 2 percentage points per annum and anaemia among children (and young females) by 3 percentage points per annum.

Statement 3 is incorrect.

• It comes under the Ministry of Women and Child Development.

• Focusing on the aims of POSHAN Abhiyaan, Mission Poshan 2.0 (Saksham Anganwadi and Poshan 2.0) has been launched as an integrated nutrition support program to strengthen nutritional content, delivery, outreach and outcomes with focus on developing practices that nurture health, wellness and immunity to disease and malnutrition.
• The Ministry of Women and Child Development is celebrating the 5^th Rashtriya Poshan Maah 2022 from 1^st to 30^th September 2022. This year, the objective is to trigger Poshan Maah through Gram Panchayats as Poshan Panchayats with key focus on “Mahila aur Swasthya” and “Bacha aur Shiksha”.

 Source: PIB

8. IBSAMAR, a joint multinational maritime exercise among which of the following nations?

1. India
2. Bangladesh
3. Sri Lanka
4. Brazil
5. South Africa
6. Maldives

 Choose the correct code from the options given below:

1. 1, 2, 3 and 6
2. 1, 4, 5 and 6
3. 1, 4 and 5
4. 1, 2 and 3

 Explanation

• IBSAMAR is a naval and maritime cooperation exercise between India, Brazil and South Africa.
• Ex IBSAMAR highlights the maritime dimension of the IBSA Dialogue Forum and the robust South-South cooperation.
• The Joint Maritime Exercise will strengthen maritime security, joint operational training, sharing of best practices and building interoperability to address common maritime threats.
• INS Tarkash reached Port Gqeberha (also known as Port Elizabeth), South Africa to participate in the seventh edition of IBSAMAR, a joint multinational maritime exercise among Indian, Brazilian and South African Navies from 10 – 12 Oct 22.
• The Indian Navy is represented by the Teg class guided missile frigate, INS Tarkash, a Chetak helicopter and the personnel from the Marine Commando Force (MARCOS).

 Source: PIB

 9. A new global tax transparency framework named Crypto-Asset Reporting Framework (CARF) was launched by:

World Bank

IMF

OECD

Bank of International Settlements

 Explanation

• In light of the rapid development and growth of the Crypto-Asset market and to ensure that recent gains in global tax transparency will not be gradually eroded, in April 2021 the G20 mandated the OECD to develop a framework providing for the automatic exchange of tax-relevant information on Crypto-Assets.
• In August 2022, the OECD approved the Crypto-Asset Reporting Framework (CARF) which provides for the reporting of tax information on transactions in Crypto-Assets in a standardised manner, with a view to automatically exchanging such information.
• The CARF defines the Relevant Crypto-Assets in scope and the intermediaries and other service providers that will be subject to reporting. In doing so, the CARF incorporates recent developments in the global anti-money laundering standards of the Financial Action Task Force.
• In line with the Common Reporting Standard (CRS), the due diligence procedures require the identification of both individual and Entity customers, as well as their Controlling Persons. The CARF requires reporting on an aggregate basis, divided by type of Crypto-Asset and type of transaction.
• In August 2022, the OECD has also approved amendments to the CRS to bring certain electronic money products and Central Bank Digital Currencies in scope.

 Source: Indian Express

10.Which of the following countries is/are members of the G7?
Canada

1. USA
2. UK
3. France
4. Germany
5. Norway
6. Japan
7. Italy
8. Australia

 Choose the correct code from the options given below:

1. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
2. 2, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 and 9
3. 2, 3, 4, 5, 7, 8 and 9
4. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 7 and 8

 Explanation

• The G7 is an informal grouping of advanced democracies that meets annually to coordinate global economic policy and address other transnational issues.
• The members of the G7 are the United States, Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, and the United Kingdom.
• Russia belonged to the forum from 1998 through 2014, when the bloc was known as the Group of Eight (G8), but it was suspended following its annexation of Ukraine’s Crimea region.

 Why was the G7 formed?

• The United States, France, Italy, Japan, the UK, and West Germany formed the Group of Six in 1975 to provide a venue for the non-communist powers to address pressing economic concerns, which included inflation and a recession sparked by the Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) oil embargo. Canada joined the following year. Cold War politics invariably entered the group’s agenda.
• There is no formal criteria for membership, but all participants are wealthy democracies. The aggregate gross domestic product (GDP) of G7 member states makes up about 45 percent of the global economy in nominal terms, down from nearly 70 percent three decades ago.

Source: Indian Express