Directions

Study the information and answer the given questions:

Eight persons R, S, T, U, V, W, X and Y lives on eight storey building with ground floor being numbered one and the next floor is number 2 and so on. They have different breeds of dog viz. Beagle, Labrador, Rottweiler, Bulldog, Doberman, Boxer, Pug, and St. Bernard but not necessarily in same order.

(i) R lives on even numbered floor above fourth floor. Two people lives between the floors on which R lives and the one who has Doberman.

(ii) Four people lives between the floors of T and W.

(iii) T lives on even numbered floor above W.

(iv) The person who has Labrador lives on odd numbered floor above the one who has in Doberman and below the floor upon which R lives.

(v) Number of people living between the one who has Doberman and R, is two more than the number of persons between the one who has Labrador and T.

(vi) S does not have Labrador. As many people live between the one who has Pug and St. Bernard same as between the one who has Labrador and S.

(vii) The person who has Pug lives on one of the floor above the one who has St. Bernard and lives on even number floor below 8th floor but not on 4th floor.

(viii) X lives on odd floor immediately above U. Four people lives between the one, who has Boxer and Bulldog.

(ix) The person who has in Boxer lives on one of the floors above the person who has Bulldog.

(x) S lives immediately above Y. U does not have Beagle.

(xi) The number of person who lives between T and the one has St. Bernard is less than 3.

R lives on which of the following floor?

Directions

Study the information and answer the given questions:

Eight persons R, S, T, U, V, W, X and Y lives on eight storey building with ground floor being numbered one and the next floor is number 2 and so on. They have different breeds of dog viz. Beagle, Labrador, Rottweiler, Bulldog, Doberman, Boxer, Pug, and St. Bernard but not necessarily in same order.

(i) R lives on even numbered floor above fourth floor. Two people lives between the floors on which R lives and the one who has Doberman.

(ii) Four people lives between the floors of T and W.

(iii) T lives on even numbered floor above W.

(iv) The person who has Labrador lives on odd numbered floor above the one who has in Doberman and below the floor upon which R lives.

(v) Number of people living between the one who has Doberman and R, is two more than the number of persons between the one who has Labrador and T.

(vi) S does not have Labrador. As many people live between the one who has Pug and St. Bernard same as between the one who has Labrador and S.

(vii) The person who has Pug lives on one of the floor above the one who has St. Bernard and lives on even number floor below 8th floor but not on 4th floor.

(viii) X lives on odd floor immediately above U. Four people lives between the one, who has Boxer and Bulldog.

(ix) The person who has in Boxer lives on one of the floors above the person who has Bulldog.

(x) S lives immediately above Y. U does not have Beagle.

(xi) The number of person who lives between T and the one has St. Bernard is less than 3.

S has which of the following dogs? 

Directions

Study the information and answer the given questions:

Eight persons R, S, T, U, V, W, X and Y lives on eight storey building with ground floor being numbered one and the next floor is number 2 and so on. They have different breeds of dog viz. Beagle, Labrador, Rottweiler, Bulldog, Doberman, Boxer, Pug, and St. Bernard but not necessarily in same order.

(i) R lives on even numbered floor above fourth floor. Two people lives between the floors on which R lives and the one who has Doberman.

(ii) Four people lives between the floors of T and W.

(iii) T lives on even numbered floor above W.

(iv) The person who has Labrador lives on odd numbered floor above the one who has in Doberman and below the floor upon which R lives.

(v) Number of people living between the one who has Doberman and R, is two more than the number of persons between the one who has Labrador and T.

(vi) S does not have Labrador. As many people live between the one who has Pug and St. Bernard same as between the one who has Labrador and S.

(vii) The person who has Pug lives on one of the floor above the one who has St. Bernard and lives on even number floor below 8th floor but not on 4th floor.

(viii) X lives on odd floor immediately above U. Four people lives between the one, who has Boxer and Bulldog.

(ix) The person who has in Boxer lives on one of the floors above the person who has Bulldog.

(x) S lives immediately above Y. U does not have Beagle.

(xi) The number of person who lives between T and the one has St. Bernard is less than 3.

How many floors are between Y and R?

Directions

Study the information and answer the given questions:

Eight persons R, S, T, U, V, W, X and Y lives on eight storey building with ground floor being numbered one and the next floor is number 2 and so on. They have different breeds of dog viz. Beagle, Labrador, Rottweiler, Bulldog, Doberman, Boxer, Pug, and St. Bernard but not necessarily in same order.

(i) R lives on even numbered floor above fourth floor. Two people lives between the floors on which R lives and the one who has Doberman.

(ii) Four people lives between the floors of T and W.

(iii) T lives on even numbered floor above W.

(iv) The person who has Labrador lives on odd numbered floor above the one who has in Doberman and below the floor upon which R lives.

(v) Number of people living between the one who has Doberman and R, is two more than the number of persons between the one who has Labrador and T.

(vi) S does not have Labrador. As many people live between the one who has Pug and St. Bernard same as between the one who has Labrador and S.

(vii) The person who has Pug lives on one of the floor above the one who has St. Bernard and lives on even number floor below 8th floor but not on 4th floor.

(viii) X lives on odd floor immediately above U. Four people lives between the one, who has Boxer and Bulldog.

(ix) The person who has in Boxer lives on one of the floors above the person who has Bulldog.

(x) S lives immediately above Y. U does not have Beagle.

(xi) The number of person who lives between T and the one has St. Bernard is less than 3.

U has which of the following dog? 

Directions

Study the information and answer the given questions:

Eight persons R, S, T, U, V, W, X and Y lives on eight storey building with ground floor being numbered one and the next floor is number 2 and so on. They have different breeds of dog viz. Beagle, Labrador, Rottweiler, Bulldog, Doberman, Boxer, Pug, and St. Bernard but not necessarily in same order.

(i) R lives on even numbered floor above fourth floor. Two people lives between the floors on which R lives and the one who has Doberman.

(ii) Four people lives between the floors of T and W.

(iii) T lives on even numbered floor above W.

(iv) The person who has Labrador lives on odd numbered floor above the one who has in Doberman and below the floor upon which R lives.

(v) Number of people living between the one who has Doberman and R, is two more than the number of persons between the one who has Labrador and T.

(vi) S does not have Labrador. As many people live between the one who has Pug and St. Bernard same as between the one who has Labrador and S.

(vii) The person who has Pug lives on one of the floor above the one who has St. Bernard and lives on even number floor below 8th floor but not on 4th floor.

(viii) X lives on odd floor immediately above U. Four people lives between the one, who has Boxer and Bulldog.

(ix) The person who has in Boxer lives on one of the floors above the person who has Bulldog.

(x) S lives immediately above Y. U does not have Beagle.

(xi) The number of person who lives between T and the one has St. Bernard is less than 3.

In some way R is related to V and X is related to U, in the same way S is related to?

Directions

In each question below are given three statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:  Some pages are pencils. 

                      All pencils are papers.

                      No paper is an eraser. 

Conclusions:  I. Some erasers are not pages.

                       II. All papers being pages is a possibility. 

                      III. At least some erasers are papers.

Directions

In each question below are given three statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:  No book is a marker. 

                      No number is a marker.

                      Some numbers are roughs.

Conclusions:   I. No book is a number.

                        II. Some roughs are not markers.

                       III. Some roughs are not numbers.

Directions

In each question below are given three statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:  All plates are cups.

                      No cup is a spoon.

                      Some saucers are spoons.

Conclusions:    I. Some saucers are definitely not cups.

                         II. All spoons are not cups is a possibility.

                        III. No plate is a spoon.

Directions

In each question below are given three statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:  Some rings are pendants.

                      No anklet is a pendant.

                     Some platinum are anklets.

Conclusions:   I. All platinum are pendants.

                        II. Some rings are not anklets.

                       III. Some anklets are not pendants.

Directions

In each question below are given three statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:  No silver is bangle.

                      All bangles are bracelets.

                      Some bracelets are ornament.

Conclusions:   I. All silvers being ornament is a possibility.

                       II. Some bangles are ornaments.

                      III. At least some ornaments are bracelets.

Directions

Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below.

S  5  Q   J   K   N   R   4    %   T   @   ©  U   L  5   W   2   X  $  Z  3  C  F  7  #  8  E  I  9 H  & Z  M

Which of the following is the sixth to the left of the fifteenth from the left end of the given arrangement?

Directions

Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below.

S  5  Q   J   K   N   R   4    %   T   @   ©  U   L  5   W   2   X  $  Z  3  C  F  7  #  8  E  I  9 H  & Z  M

How many such numbers are there in the given arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and not immediately followed by a letter?

Directions

Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below.

S  5  Q   J   K   N   R   4    %   T   @   ©  U   L  5   W   2   X  $  Z  3  C  F  7  #  8  E  I  9 H  & Z  M

How many such symbols are there in the given arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a letter but not immediately preceded by a number?

Directions

Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below.

S  5  Q   J   K   N   R   4    %   T   @   ©  U   L  5   W   2   X  $  Z  3  C  F  7  #  8  E  I  9 H  & Z  M

How many such consonants are there in the given arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and immediately followed by a symbol?

Directions

Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below.

S  5  Q   J   K   N   R   4    %   T   @   ©  U   L  5   W   2   X  $  Z  3  C  F  7  #  8  E  I  9 H  & Z  M

What should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement?

QKR        T©L      2$3       ?

Directions

In the following questions, the symbols $, ©,×, @ and # are used with the following meanings: 

P $ Q means P is not smaller than Q.

P © Q means P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q.

P @ Q means P is not greater than Q.

P × Q means P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q.

P # Q means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q.

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find out which of the conclusions I, II and III given below them is/ are definitely true and mark your answer accordingly.

Statements: A $ L, L × U, U © G

Conclusions: I. G # A       II. A × U        III. L × U

Directions

In the following questions, the symbols $, ©,×, @ and # are used with the following meanings: 

P $ Q means P is not smaller than Q.

P © Q means P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q.

P @ Q means P is not greater than Q.

P × Q means P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q.

P # Q means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q.

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find out which of the conclusions I, II and III given below them is/ are definitely true and mark your answer accordingly.

Statements:  L × C, C @ E, E # F

Conclusions:  I. C @ L       II. C # L           III. L x E

Directions

In the following questions, the symbols $, ©,×, @ and # are used with the following meanings: 

P $ Q means P is not smaller than Q.

P © Q means P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q.

P @ Q means P is not greater than Q.

P × Q means P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q.

P # Q means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q.

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find out which of the conclusions I, II and III given below them is/ are definitely true and mark your answer accordingly.

Statements: O © S, S @ N, N $ K

Conclusions:  I. O © N      II. O # N          III. S × K

Directions

In the following questions, the symbols $, ©,×, @ and # are used with the following meanings: 

P $ Q means P is not smaller than Q.

P © Q means P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q.

P @ Q means P is not greater than Q.

P × Q means P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q.

P # Q means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q.

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find out which of the conclusions I, II and III given below them is/ are definitely true and mark your answer accordingly.

Statements:  T $ U, U @ S, S # N

Conclusions:  I. N × U       II. S × T           III. N © U

Directions

In the following questions, the symbols $, ©,×, @ and # are used with the following meanings: 

P $ Q means P is not smaller than Q.

P © Q means P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q.

P @ Q means P is not greater than Q.

P × Q means P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q.

P # Q means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q.

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find out which of the conclusions I, II and III given below them is/ are definitely true and mark your answer accordingly.

Statements:  I @ W, W © N, N × S

Conclusions:  I. S × I          II. I × S             III. I × N

If ‘A + B’ means ‘A is the father of B’, ‘A × B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’; ‘A – B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’, then which of the following is definitely true about D – B + C × E?

The positions of the first and the second digits of the number 43957682 are interchanged. Similarly, the positions of the third and the fourth digits are interchanged and so on. Which of the following will be the sixth digit from the left end after the rearrangement?

Each vowel in the word CHAIRMAN is changed to the previous letter in the English alphabet and each consonant is changed to the next letter in the English alphabet. Which of the following will be the second from the right end in the new arrangement?

Directions

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

A + B means ‘A is 5 m north of B’

A – B means ‘A is 10 m south of B’

A * B means ‘A is 15 m east of B’

A @ B means ‘A is 20 m west of B’ 

Q is in which direction with respect to point U in the following code “Q + P – S * T @ U” ?

Directions

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

A + B means ‘A is 5 m north of B’

A – B means ‘A is 10 m south of B’

A * B means ‘A is 15 m east of B’

A @ B means ‘A is 20 m west of B’ 

What is the distance between point ‘L’ and ‘P’ in the following expression ‘L – M @ N + P * Q’?

Directions

Study the given information and answer the questions:

Eight person P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting in a straight line. Some of them are facing north while some of them are facing south. They all are born in different months viz. March, May, July, August, September, October, November and December but not necessarily in the same order.

(i) P was born in August and sits third from one of the extreme end of line.

(ii) There are three person sit between P and W, who was born in May.

(iii) V sits second to right of W.

(iv) The one who was born in September does not sit adjacent to one who was born in May.

(v) Q was born in September and sits third to right of U, who was born in March.

(vi) R was not born in October.

(vii) T was not born in November.

(viii) Q does not sit any of the extreme ends of the line.

(ix) There are as many as person sits between R, who sits one of the extreme ends of line and one who was born in July and as between S and one who was born in July.

(x) U faces south.

(xi) S was neither born in November nor October.

(xii) Immediate neighbour of W faces same direction as of W (Same direction means if W faces north then both neighbours of W faces north and vice-versa).

(xiii) V sits second to right of P, and both faces same direction (Same direction means if P faces south then V also faces south and vice-versa).

(xiv) Q sits second to right of S and both faces opposite direction (opposite direction means faces north then Q faces south and vice-versa).

Who among following sits immediate left of one who was born in March?

Directions

Study the given information and answer the questions:

Eight person P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting in a straight line. Some of them are facing north while some of them are facing south. They all are born in different months viz. March, May, July, August, September, October, November and December but not necessarily in the same order.

(i) P was born in August and sits third from one of the extreme end of line.

(ii) There are three person sit between P and W, who was born in May.

(iii) V sits second to right of W.

(iv) The one who was born in September does not sit adjacent to one who was born in May.

(v) Q was born in September and sits third to right of U, who was born in March.

(vi) R was not born in October.

(vii) T was not born in November.

(viii) Q does not sit any of the extreme ends of the line.

(ix) There are as many as person sits between R, who sits one of the extreme ends of line and one who was born in July and as between S and one who was born in July.

(x) U faces south.

(xi) S was neither born in November nor October.

(xii) Immediate neighbour of W faces same direction as of W (Same direction means if W faces north then both neighbours of W faces north and vice-versa).

(xiii) V sits second to right of P, and both faces same direction (Same direction means if P faces south then V also faces south and vice-versa).

(xiv) Q sits second to right of S and both faces opposite direction (opposite direction means faces north then Q faces south and vice-versa).

Who among following sits third to right of R?

Directions

Study the given information and answer the questions:

Eight person P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting in a straight line. Some of them are facing north while some of them are facing south. They all are born in different months viz. March, May, July, August, September, October, November and December but not necessarily in the same order.

(i) P was born in August and sits third from one of the extreme end of line.

(ii) There are three person sit between P and W, who was born in May.

(iii) V sits second to right of W.

(iv) The one who was born in September does not sit adjacent to one who was born in May.

(v) Q was born in September and sits third to right of U, who was born in March.

(vi) R was not born in October.

(vii) T was not born in November.

(viii) Q does not sit any of the extreme ends of the line.

(ix) There are as many as person sits between R, who sits one of the extreme ends of line and one who was born in July and as between S and one who was born in July.

(x) U faces south.

(xi) S was neither born in November nor October.

(xii) Immediate neighbour of W faces same direction as of W (Same direction means if W faces north then both neighbours of W faces north and vice-versa).

(xiii) V sits second to right of P, and both faces same direction (Same direction means if P faces south then V also faces south and vice-versa).

(xiv) Q sits second to right of S and both faces opposite direction (opposite direction means faces north then Q faces south and vice-versa).

Who among following sits exactly between S and Q?

Directions

Study the given information and answer the questions:

Eight person P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting in a straight line. Some of them are facing north while some of them are facing south. They all are born in different months viz. March, May, July, August, September, October, November and December but not necessarily in the same order.

(i) P was born in August and sits third from one of the extreme end of line.

(ii) There are three person sit between P and W, who was born in May.

(iii) V sits second to right of W.

(iv) The one who was born in September does not sit adjacent to one who was born in May.

(v) Q was born in September and sits third to right of U, who was born in March.

(vi) R was not born in October.

(vii) T was not born in November.

(viii) Q does not sit any of the extreme ends of the line.

(ix) There are as many as person sits between R, who sits one of the extreme ends of line and one who was born in July and as between S and one who was born in July.

(x) U faces south.

(xi) S was neither born in November nor October.

(xii) Immediate neighbour of W faces same direction as of W (Same direction means if W faces north then both neighbours of W faces north and vice-versa).

(xiii) V sits second to right of P, and both faces same direction (Same direction means if P faces south then V also faces south and vice-versa).

(xiv) Q sits second to right of S and both faces opposite direction (opposite direction means faces north then Q faces south and vice-versa).

Who among following was born in December?

Directions

Study the given information and answer the questions:

Eight person P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting in a straight line. Some of them are facing north while some of them are facing south. They all are born in different months viz. March, May, July, August, September, October, November and December but not necessarily in the same order.

(i) P was born in August and sits third from one of the extreme end of line.

(ii) There are three person sit between P and W, who was born in May.

(iii) V sits second to right of W.

(iv) The one who was born in September does not sit adjacent to one who was born in May.

(v) Q was born in September and sits third to right of U, who was born in March.

(vi) R was not born in October.

(vii) T was not born in November.

(viii) Q does not sit any of the extreme ends of the line.

(ix) There are as many as person sits between R, who sits one of the extreme ends of line and one who was born in July and as between S and one who was born in July.

(x) U faces south.

(xi) S was neither born in November nor October.

(xii) Immediate neighbour of W faces same direction as of W (Same direction means if W faces north then both neighbours of W faces north and vice-versa).

(xiii) V sits second to right of P, and both faces same direction (Same direction means if P faces south then V also faces south and vice-versa).

(xiv) Q sits second to right of S and both faces opposite direction (opposite direction means faces north then Q faces south and vice-versa).

Who among following sits third to left one who was born in July?

Directions

Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a round table facing towards the centre of the table in a cafeteria. They ordered different soft-drinks (Fanta, Maaza, Sprite, Pepsi, Coca-cola and Mirinda) and they also play different games, i.e. Cricket, Tennis, Football, Badminton, Basketball and Kabaddi, but not necessarily in the same order.

(i) The persons who drinks Fanta, Sprite and Coca-cola neither play Cricket nor Tennis.

(ii) The persons who play Football and Basketball neither drink Fanta nor Sprite.

(iii) A neither play Cricket nor sits on the immediate left of the person who drinks Pepsi.

(iv) The only person who is between E and F drinks Maaza.

(v) The person who is on the immediate left side of the person play Cricket does not drink Mirinda.

(vi) D drinks Pepsi and play Football and he is facing the person who drinks Maaza.

(vii) One who drinks Fanta sits opposite to the person who play Kabaddi.

(viii) The one who play Football is on the immediate left of the person who drinks Coca-cola.

(ix) One who drinks Mirinda is on the immediate right of the person who play Cricket but on the immediate left of the person who drinks Sprite.

(x) C does not drink Sprite while F does not drink Fanta.

Who among the following plays Cricket?

Directions

Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a round table facing towards the centre of the table in a cafeteria. They ordered different soft-drinks (Fanta, Maaza, Sprite, Pepsi, Coca-cola and Mirinda) and they also play different games, i.e. Cricket, Tennis, Football, Badminton, Basketball and Kabaddi, but not necessarily in the same order.

(i) The persons who drinks Fanta, Sprite and Coca-cola neither play Cricket nor Tennis.

(ii) The persons who play Football and Basketball neither drink Fanta nor Sprite.

(iii) A neither play Cricket nor sits on the immediate left of the person who drinks Pepsi.

(iv) The only person who is between E and F drinks Maaza.

(v) The person who is on the immediate left side of the person play Cricket does not drink Mirinda.

(vi) D drinks Pepsi and play Football and he is facing the person who drinks Maaza.

(vii) One who drinks Fanta sits opposite to the person who play Kabaddi.

(viii) The one who play Football is on the immediate left of the person who drinks Coca-cola.

(ix) One who drinks Mirinda is on the immediate right of the person who play Cricket but on the immediate left of the person who drinks Sprite.

(x) C does not drink Sprite while F does not drink Fanta.

The only person, who is between E and D, plays which game?

Directions

Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a round table facing towards the centre of the table in a cafeteria. They ordered different soft-drinks (Fanta, Maaza, Sprite, Pepsi, Coca-cola and Mirinda) and they also play different games, i.e. Cricket, Tennis, Football, Badminton, Basketball and Kabaddi, but not necessarily in the same order.

(i) The persons who drinks Fanta, Sprite and Coca-cola neither play Cricket nor Tennis.

(ii) The persons who play Football and Basketball neither drink Fanta nor Sprite.

(iii) A neither play Cricket nor sits on the immediate left of the person who drinks Pepsi.

(iv) The only person who is between E and F drinks Maaza.

(v) The person who is on the immediate left side of the person play Cricket does not drink Mirinda.

(vi) D drinks Pepsi and play Football and he is facing the person who drinks Maaza.

(vii) One who drinks Fanta sits opposite to the person who play Kabaddi.

(viii) The one who play Football is on the immediate left of the person who drinks Coca-cola.

(ix) One who drinks Mirinda is on the immediate right of the person who play Cricket but on the immediate left of the person who drinks Sprite.

(x) C does not drink Sprite while F does not drink Fanta.

Who among the following drinks Coca-cola?

Directions

Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a round table facing towards the centre of the table in a cafeteria. They ordered different soft-drinks (Fanta, Maaza, Sprite, Pepsi, Coca-cola and Mirinda) and they also play different games, i.e. Cricket, Tennis, Football, Badminton, Basketball and Kabaddi, but not necessarily in the same order.

(i) The persons who drinks Fanta, Sprite and Coca-cola neither play Cricket nor Tennis.

(ii) The persons who play Football and Basketball neither drink Fanta nor Sprite.

(iii) A neither play Cricket nor sits on the immediate left of the person who drinks Pepsi.

(iv) The only person who is between E and F drinks Maaza.

(v) The person who is on the immediate left side of the person play Cricket does not drink Mirinda.

(vi) D drinks Pepsi and play Football and he is facing the person who drinks Maaza.

(vii) One who drinks Fanta sits opposite to the person who play Kabaddi.

(viii) The one who play Football is on the immediate left of the person who drinks Coca-cola.

(ix) One who drinks Mirinda is on the immediate right of the person who play Cricket but on the immediate left of the person who drinks Sprite.

(x) C does not drink Sprite while F does not drink Fanta.

Which of the following is correctly matched?

Directions

Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a round table facing towards the centre of the table in a cafeteria. They ordered different soft-drinks (Fanta, Maaza, Sprite, Pepsi, Coca-cola and Mirinda) and they also play different games, i.e. Cricket, Tennis, Football, Badminton, Basketball and Kabaddi, but not necessarily in the same order.

(i) The persons who drinks Fanta, Sprite and Coca-cola neither play Cricket nor Tennis.

(ii) The persons who play Football and Basketball neither drink Fanta nor Sprite.

(iii) A neither play Cricket nor sits on the immediate left of the person who drinks Pepsi.

(iv) The only person who is between E and F drinks Maaza.

(v) The person who is on the immediate left side of the person play Cricket does not drink Mirinda.

(vi) D drinks Pepsi and play Football and he is facing the person who drinks Maaza.

(vii) One who drinks Fanta sits opposite to the person who play Kabaddi.

(viii) The one who play Football is on the immediate left of the person who drinks Coca-cola.

(ix) One who drinks Mirinda is on the immediate right of the person who play Cricket but on the immediate left of the person who drinks Sprite.

(x) C does not drink Sprite while F does not drink Fanta.

The one who drinks Mirinda plays which of the following game?

Directions

Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

When a word and number arrangement machine is given an input line of words and numbers, it arranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of Input and rearrangement.

Input: Object 26 Bluff 49 Foot 96 Magic 23 Arena 38

Step 1: Arena 96 Object 26 Bluff 49 Foot Magic 23 38

Step 2: Arena 96 Object 38 26 Bluff 49 Foot Magic 23

Step 3: Arena 96 Object 38 Magic 26 Bluff 49 Foot 23

Step 4: Arena 96 Object 38 Magic 26 Foot 49 Bluff 23

And step 4 is the last step of the above input. As per the rules followed in the above step, find out the appropriate step for the given output.

Input: Gambler 7 Sole 72 ultimate 84 Eager 83 Roof 95

Which step is penultimate step?

Directions

Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

When a word and number arrangement machine is given an input line of words and numbers, it arranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of Input and rearrangement.

Input: Object 26 Bluff 49 Foot 96 Magic 23 Arena 38

Step 1: Arena 96 Object 26 Bluff 49 Foot Magic 23 38

Step 2: Arena 96 Object 38 26 Bluff 49 Foot Magic 23

Step 3: Arena 96 Object 38 Magic 26 Bluff 49 Foot 23

Step 4: Arena 96 Object 38 Magic 26 Foot 49 Bluff 23

And step 4 is the last step of the above input. As per the rules followed in the above step, find out the appropriate step for the given output.

Input: Gambler 7 Sole 72 ultimate 84 Eager 83 Roof 95

What is exactly between 72 and 7, in step 2?

Directions

Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

When a word and number arrangement machine is given an input line of words and numbers, it arranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of Input and rearrangement.

Input: Object 26 Bluff 49 Foot 96 Magic 23 Arena 38

Step 1: Arena 96 Object 26 Bluff 49 Foot Magic 23 38

Step 2: Arena 96 Object 38 26 Bluff 49 Foot Magic 23

Step 3: Arena 96 Object 38 Magic 26 Bluff 49 Foot 23

Step 4: Arena 96 Object 38 Magic 26 Foot 49 Bluff 23

And step 4 is the last step of the above input. As per the rules followed in the above step, find out the appropriate step for the given output.

Input: Gambler 7 Sole 72 ultimate 84 Eager 83 Roof 95

What is the position of ‘Sole’ in Step 4?

Directions

Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

When a word and number arrangement machine is given an input line of words and numbers, it arranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of Input and rearrangement.

Input: Object 26 Bluff 49 Foot 96 Magic 23 Arena 38

Step 1: Arena 96 Object 26 Bluff 49 Foot Magic 23 38

Step 2: Arena 96 Object 38 26 Bluff 49 Foot Magic 23

Step 3: Arena 96 Object 38 Magic 26 Bluff 49 Foot 23

Step 4: Arena 96 Object 38 Magic 26 Foot 49 Bluff 23

And step 4 is the last step of the above input. As per the rules followed in the above step, find out the appropriate step for the given output.

Input: Gambler 7 Sole 72 ultimate 84 Eager 83 Roof 95

Which step number would be the following output?

‘Eager 84 Sole 95 Ultimate 72 Gambler 7 83 Roof’

Directions

Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

When a word and number arrangement machine is given an input line of words and numbers, it arranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of Input and rearrangement.

Input: Object 26 Bluff 49 Foot 96 Magic 23 Arena 38

Step 1: Arena 96 Object 26 Bluff 49 Foot Magic 23 38

Step 2: Arena 96 Object 38 26 Bluff 49 Foot Magic 23

Step 3: Arena 96 Object 38 Magic 26 Bluff 49 Foot 23

Step 4: Arena 96 Object 38 Magic 26 Foot 49 Bluff 23

And step 4 is the last step of the above input. As per the rules followed in the above step, find out the appropriate step for the given output.

Input: Gambler 7 Sole 72 ultimate 84 Eager 83 Roof 95

In Step 3, what is the sum of the elements which are third and second from right end?

Chakrashila is India’s first wildlife sanctuary with golden langur as the primary species. It is situated in which of the following states?

Prime Minister Narendra Modi visited which of the following country first after assuming office for the second term?

Who won the Single Male French Open title in 2019?

What is the IUCN Red List status of Golden Langur?

Basel III norms is related to which of the following?

The Ministry of Home Affairs has empowered district magistrates in all States and Union Territories to set up Foreigners tribunals. Foreigners tribunals are which kind of body?

Traffic Index 2018 has been published by which of the following agency?

Who has written the famous paly “Nagamandala”?

For ‘Transformation of Indian Agriculture’ PM Narendra Modi constituted a High-powered Committee of Chief Ministers . Who among the following is head of this Committee? 

Which organisation has launched paperless licensing process through the Petroleum and Explosives Safety Organisation (PESO) for road tankers for transportation of petroleum?

Where is the headquarter of Bureau of Police Research and Development?

Who won the F1 Belgian Grand Prix 2020? 

B.N Srikrishna Committee is related to which of the following?

Which of the following Bollywood celebrity has been recently appointed as Goodwill Ambassador for Child Rights by UNICEF?

_________ amount would be provided as seed fund to the startups selected under the Centre’s next-generation startup programme ‘Chunauti’.

The fifth meeting of the Governing Council of NITI Aayog was held at Rashtrapati Bhawan. Who is the chairman of Governing Council of NITI Aayog?

Who has been appointed as Pro-tem Speaker of the Lok Sabha in 2019?

Which of the following Indian non-profit organization has won BBC World Service Global Champion Award in 2019?

Who won the Femina Miss India World 2019 beauty pageant?

Namaste Thailand film festival has been organized in which of the following city?

Matri Shree Shield is related to which of the following flied?

Who has recently become the first female president of Slovakia?

Which International Organization has approved projects for infrastructure development worth Rs 1,650 crore ($235 million) in seven of the eight districts headquarter towns in Tripura?

Bharat Financial Inclusion Ltd (BFIL) has been merged with which of the banks?

The Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi Scheme, announced in the last interim budget of the previous government, provides an annual sum of Rs._______ to all farmers in three instalments. 

Winter Olympics 2026 will be hosted by?

Krishi Vigyan Kendra works under which of the following?

Ambubachi Mela is an annual Hindu mela celebrated during the monsoon season. It is being organized in which of the following states?

What is the rank of India in Human Capital Index 2020?

___________ became the first Indian batsman to cross 1000-run mark in 2019.

Who has won the RedInk Award for for Excellence in Indian Journalism ‘Journalist of the Year’ 2019?

“Lessons Life Taught Me Unknowingly” is an upcoming book. Who has written this book?

May 20 is observed as World Metrology Day all around, what is the theme of the event in 2019?

Who has been appointed as the Pakistan’s as the High Commissioner to India in 2019?

The first of its kind “Pacific Vanguard” Naval drill has been started in May 2019 near Guam western pacific. Which of the following nations is not participating in the exercise?

NDA has won the 2019 Lok Sabha elections by single majority of 303 seats out of 543. The 2019 elections was __ Lok Sabha elections.

‘SelfScan’, a document scanning app, launched by which of the following state? 

According to World Bank, what is the growth estimate for India for current fiscal?

In addition to mount Kailash, which Indian site has been selected in tentative list of the World Heritage Sites by UNESCO in May 2019?

Brij Mohan Khaitan, a famous Indian personality passed away recently, he belongs to which of the following field?

Directions

Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentences to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and there is no correction required mark (5) as the answer.

A swift action by the police officers as soon as a complaint is registered by a woman would be appreciative.

Directions

Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentences to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and there is no correction required mark (5) as the answer.

I have to make sure that I get my sister’s cheque encash before Friday.

Directions

Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentences to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and there is no correction required mark (5) as the answer.

Seema got a lot of appreciation for handling a considerable difficult task.

Directions

Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentences to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and there is no correction required mark (5) as the answer.

We need to make sure that we eat healthy and took care of our bodies well.

Directions

Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentences to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and there is no correction required mark (5) as the answer.

A lot of dedication and determination is required in order to bring through a big change in our society and country on a large scale.

Directions

Each of the following sentences are divided into parts and contain some errors or no error at all. If the sentence contains an error, select the part that must be changed to make the sentence correct. The error, if any, will not be in more than two parts. If the sentence is correct, select choice E. In choosing the answers follow the requirements of standard written English.

Although his term (A)/ was much shorter than that of later presidents, (B)/ President Lincoln instituted (C)/ the income tax, the draft, and the Thanksgiving holiday (D)/ No Error. (E)

Directions

Each of the following sentences are divided into parts and contain some errors or no error at all. If the sentence contains an error, select the part that must be changed to make the sentence correct. The error, if any, will not be in more than two parts. If the sentence is correct, select choice E. In choosing the answers follow the requirements of standard written English.

The best way (A)/ to enrich one soul (B)/ is to read, read anything and everything (C)/you can lie your hands on (D)/ No Error (E).

Directions

Each of the following sentences are divided into parts and contain some errors or no error at all. If the sentence contains an error, select the part that must be changed to make the sentence correct. The error, if any, will not be in more than two parts. If the sentence is correct, select choice E. In choosing the answers follow the requirements of standard written English.

The levels of honesty (A)/ are alarmingly deteriorating (B)/ in our country, (C)/ as a majority of the government officials today are venal (D)/ No Error (E).

Directions

Each of the following sentences are divided into parts and contain some errors or no error at all. If the sentence contains an error, select the part that must be changed to make the sentence correct. The error, if any, will not be in more than two parts. If the sentence is correct, select choice E. In choosing the answers follow the requirements of standard written English.

Malls are one of (A)/ the few places (B)/ where everyone comes together (C)/ to beat the viscous summer heat (D)/ No Error (E).

Directions

Each of the following sentences are divided into parts and contain some errors or no error at all. If the sentence contains an error, select the part that must be changed to make the sentence correct. The error, if any, will not be in more than two parts. If the sentence is correct, select choice E. In choosing the answers follow the requirements of standard written English.

A subject will not start with (A)/ what is put in front of the easel (B)/ or with something which (C)/ the painter happenning to remember (D)/ No Error (E).

Directions

Each of the following questions contains a statement consisiting a blank. You have to choose the option which fits the blank in the best way and completes the statement making it grammatically and contextually correct.

Being the CEO of a company,it is shameful to get involved in such __________ activities.

Directions

Each of the following questions contains a statement consisiting a blank. You have to choose the option which fits the blank in the best way and completes the statement making it grammatically and contextually correct.

Being responsible and good citizens of a country, we should all __________ by the rules laid down by the government.

Directions

Each of the following questions contains a statement consisiting a blank. You have to choose the option which fits the blank in the best way and completes the statement making it grammatically and contextually correct.

You must appreciate her honesty and _________ the truth in her confession of the mistakes that she has committed till now.

Directions

Each of the following questions contains a statement consisiting a blank. You have to choose the option which fits the blank in the best way and completes the statement making it grammatically and contextually correct.

The board of directors of the company strongly ___________ with the recommendations given by the committee.

Directions

Each of the following questions contains a statement consisiting a blank. You have to choose the option which fits the blank in the best way and completes the statement making it grammatically and contextually correct.

Even after reaching to the top position in his company,his nature hasn’t change much and is quite ____________with whosoever he meets. 

Directions

Rearrange the following five sentences A, B, C, D, and E in the proper sequence to form a meaningful / coherent paragraph and answer the questions that follow.

A. Even this year, national leaders, including President Maithripala Sirisena, saluted the soldiers for their sacrifice, while offering nothing but silence to the civilians who were caught in the conflict.

B. For the Tamils who gathered in Mullaitivu district in the Northern Province on Friday, it was a day to remember loved ones killed in those savage final days of the war that ended on May 18, 2009 — according to UN estimates, nearly 40,000 died.

C. However, going by the polarised views around the anniversary of the end of Sri Lanka’s civil war, there are few signs of that.

D. Nine years is perhaps too short a time for deep wounds to heal, but it is enough time to begin to introspect.

E. The southern Sinhalese political leadership, on the other hand, makes it a point to celebrate “war heroes” around the same time, hailing their efforts to bring peace.

Which of the following will be the SECOND statement after the rearrangement?

Directions

Rearrange the following five sentences A, B, C, D, and E in the proper sequence to form a meaningful / coherent paragraph and answer the questions that follow.

A. Even this year, national leaders, including President Maithripala Sirisena, saluted the soldiers for their sacrifice, while offering nothing but silence to the civilians who were caught in the conflict.

B. For the Tamils who gathered in Mullaitivu district in the Northern Province on Friday, it was a day to remember loved ones killed in those savage final days of the war that ended on May 18, 2009 — according to UN estimates, nearly 40,000 died.

C. However, going by the polarised views around the anniversary of the end of Sri Lanka’s civil war, there are few signs of that.

D. Nine years is perhaps too short a time for deep wounds to heal, but it is enough time to begin to introspect.

E. The southern Sinhalese political leadership, on the other hand, makes it a point to celebrate “war heroes” around the same time, hailing their efforts to bring peace.

Which of the following will be the FOURTH statement after the rearrangement?

Directions

Rearrange the following five sentences A, B, C, D, and E in the proper sequence to form a meaningful / coherent paragraph and answer the questions that follow.

A. Even this year, national leaders, including President Maithripala Sirisena, saluted the soldiers for their sacrifice, while offering nothing but silence to the civilians who were caught in the conflict.

B. For the Tamils who gathered in Mullaitivu district in the Northern Province on Friday, it was a day to remember loved ones killed in those savage final days of the war that ended on May 18, 2009 — according to UN estimates, nearly 40,000 died.

C. However, going by the polarised views around the anniversary of the end of Sri Lanka’s civil war, there are few signs of that.

D. Nine years is perhaps too short a time for deep wounds to heal, but it is enough time to begin to introspect.

E. The southern Sinhalese political leadership, on the other hand, makes it a point to celebrate “war heroes” around the same time, hailing their efforts to bring peace.

Which of the following will be the THIRD statement after the rearrangement?

Directions

Rearrange the following five sentences A, B, C, D, and E in the proper sequence to form a meaningful / coherent paragraph and answer the questions that follow.

A. Even this year, national leaders, including President Maithripala Sirisena, saluted the soldiers for their sacrifice, while offering nothing but silence to the civilians who were caught in the conflict.

B. For the Tamils who gathered in Mullaitivu district in the Northern Province on Friday, it was a day to remember loved ones killed in those savage final days of the war that ended on May 18, 2009 — according to UN estimates, nearly 40,000 died.

C. However, going by the polarised views around the anniversary of the end of Sri Lanka’s civil war, there are few signs of that.

D. Nine years is perhaps too short a time for deep wounds to heal, but it is enough time to begin to introspect.

E. The southern Sinhalese political leadership, on the other hand, makes it a point to celebrate “war heroes” around the same time, hailing their efforts to bring peace.

Which of the following will be the FIRST statement after the rearrangement?

Directions

Rearrange the following five sentences A, B, C, D, and E in the proper sequence to form a meaningful / coherent paragraph and answer the questions that follow.

A. Even this year, national leaders, including President Maithripala Sirisena, saluted the soldiers for their sacrifice, while offering nothing but silence to the civilians who were caught in the conflict.

B. For the Tamils who gathered in Mullaitivu district in the Northern Province on Friday, it was a day to remember loved ones killed in those savage final days of the war that ended on May 18, 2009 — according to UN estimates, nearly 40,000 died.

C. However, going by the polarised views around the anniversary of the end of Sri Lanka’s civil war, there are few signs of that.

D. Nine years is perhaps too short a time for deep wounds to heal, but it is enough time to begin to introspect.

E. The southern Sinhalese political leadership, on the other hand, makes it a point to celebrate “war heroes” around the same time, hailing their efforts to bring peace.

Which of the following will be the FIFTH statement after the rearrangement?

Directions

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below them. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Good news has finally started to roll out of the refurbished bankruptcy courts. Tata Steel acquired 73% stake in the bankrupt firm Bhushan Steel for about ₹35,000 crore last week, making it the first major resolution of a bankruptcy case under the new Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC). Bhushan Steel was one among the 12 major accounts referred to the National Company Law Tribunal at the behest of the Reserve Bank of India last year to ease the burden of bad loans on banks. The proceeds from the acquisition will go towards settling almost two-thirds of the total outstanding liabilities of over ₹56,000 crore that Bhushan Steel owes banks. While it may be unwise to read too much into a single case, the Bhushan Steel resolution is nevertheless an encouraging sign for banks because they typically manage to recover only about 25% of their money from defaulters. In fact, between April 2014 and September 2017, the bad loan recovery rate of public sector banks was as low as 11%, with non-performing assets worth ₹2.41 lakh crore written off from their books. The Finance Ministry now expects banks to recover more than ₹1 lakh crore from the resolution of the other cases referred by the RBI to the NCLT. If the banks do indeed recover funds of this scale, it would considerably reduce the burden on taxpayers, who would otherwise have to foot the bill for any recapitalization of banks. Even more important, speedy resolution would free valuable assets to be used for wealth-creation.

The resolution of one high-profile case, however, should not deflect attention from the many challenges still plaguing the bankruptcy resolution process. The IBC, as the government itself has admitted, remains a work in progress. This is a welcome piece of legislation to the extent that it subsumes a plethora of laws that confused creditors; instead it now offers a more streamlined way to deal with troubled assets. But issues such as the proposed eligibility criteria for bidders have left it bogged down and suppressed its capacity to help out creditors efficiently. Also, the strict time limit for the resolution process as mandated by the IBC is an area that has drawn much attention, and it merits further review in order to balance the twin objectives of speedy resolution and maximising recovery for the lenders. To its credit, the government has been willing to hear out suggestions. It would do well to implement the recommendations of the Insolvency Law Committee which, among other things, has vouched for relaxed bidder eligibility criteria. Going forward, amendments to the bankruptcy code should primarily be driven by the goal of maximising the sale price of stressed assets. This requires a robust market for stressed assets that is free from all kinds of entry barriers.

Which of the following statements is true according to the passage?

Directions

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below them. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Good news has finally started to roll out of the refurbished bankruptcy courts. Tata Steel acquired 73% stake in the bankrupt firm Bhushan Steel for about ₹35,000 crore last week, making it the first major resolution of a bankruptcy case under the new Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC). Bhushan Steel was one among the 12 major accounts referred to the National Company Law Tribunal at the behest of the Reserve Bank of India last year to ease the burden of bad loans on banks. The proceeds from the acquisition will go towards settling almost two-thirds of the total outstanding liabilities of over ₹56,000 crore that Bhushan Steel owes banks. While it may be unwise to read too much into a single case, the Bhushan Steel resolution is nevertheless an encouraging sign for banks because they typically manage to recover only about 25% of their money from defaulters. In fact, between April 2014 and September 2017, the bad loan recovery rate of public sector banks was as low as 11%, with non-performing assets worth ₹2.41 lakh crore written off from their books. The Finance Ministry now expects banks to recover more than ₹1 lakh crore from the resolution of the other cases referred by the RBI to the NCLT. If the banks do indeed recover funds of this scale, it would considerably reduce the burden on taxpayers, who would otherwise have to foot the bill for any recapitalization of banks. Even more important, speedy resolution would free valuable assets to be used for wealth-creation.

The resolution of one high-profile case, however, should not deflect attention from the many challenges still plaguing the bankruptcy resolution process. The IBC, as the government itself has admitted, remains a work in progress. This is a welcome piece of legislation to the extent that it subsumes a plethora of laws that confused creditors; instead it now offers a more streamlined way to deal with troubled assets. But issues such as the proposed eligibility criteria for bidders have left it bogged down and suppressed its capacity to help out creditors efficiently. Also, the strict time limit for the resolution process as mandated by the IBC is an area that has drawn much attention, and it merits further review in order to balance the twin objectives of speedy resolution and maximising recovery for the lenders. To its credit, the government has been willing to hear out suggestions. It would do well to implement the recommendations of the Insolvency Law Committee which, among other things, has vouched for relaxed bidder eligibility criteria. Going forward, amendments to the bankruptcy code should primarily be driven by the goal of maximising the sale price of stressed assets. This requires a robust market for stressed assets that is free from all kinds of entry barriers.

What action of the government, according to the passage affects the taxpayers when the banks are not able to recover loans?

Directions

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below them. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Good news has finally started to roll out of the refurbished bankruptcy courts. Tata Steel acquired 73% stake in the bankrupt firm Bhushan Steel for about ₹35,000 crore last week, making it the first major resolution of a bankruptcy case under the new Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC). Bhushan Steel was one among the 12 major accounts referred to the National Company Law Tribunal at the behest of the Reserve Bank of India last year to ease the burden of bad loans on banks. The proceeds from the acquisition will go towards settling almost two-thirds of the total outstanding liabilities of over ₹56,000 crore that Bhushan Steel owes banks. While it may be unwise to read too much into a single case, the Bhushan Steel resolution is nevertheless an encouraging sign for banks because they typically manage to recover only about 25% of their money from defaulters. In fact, between April 2014 and September 2017, the bad loan recovery rate of public sector banks was as low as 11%, with non-performing assets worth ₹2.41 lakh crore written off from their books. The Finance Ministry now expects banks to recover more than ₹1 lakh crore from the resolution of the other cases referred by the RBI to the NCLT. If the banks do indeed recover funds of this scale, it would considerably reduce the burden on taxpayers, who would otherwise have to foot the bill for any recapitalization of banks. Even more important, speedy resolution would free valuable assets to be used for wealth-creation.

The resolution of one high-profile case, however, should not deflect attention from the many challenges still plaguing the bankruptcy resolution process. The IBC, as the government itself has admitted, remains a work in progress. This is a welcome piece of legislation to the extent that it subsumes a plethora of laws that confused creditors; instead it now offers a more streamlined way to deal with troubled assets. But issues such as the proposed eligibility criteria for bidders have left it bogged down and suppressed its capacity to help out creditors efficiently. Also, the strict time limit for the resolution process as mandated by the IBC is an area that has drawn much attention, and it merits further review in order to balance the twin objectives of speedy resolution and maximising recovery for the lenders. To its credit, the government has been willing to hear out suggestions. It would do well to implement the recommendations of the Insolvency Law Committee which, among other things, has vouched for relaxed bidder eligibility criteria. Going forward, amendments to the bankruptcy code should primarily be driven by the goal of maximising the sale price of stressed assets. This requires a robust market for stressed assets that is free from all kinds of entry barriers.

What according to the passage would be the effect of the speedy recovery of funds?

Directions

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below them. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Good news has finally started to roll out of the refurbished bankruptcy courts. Tata Steel acquired 73% stake in the bankrupt firm Bhushan Steel for about ₹35,000 crore last week, making it the first major resolution of a bankruptcy case under the new Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC). Bhushan Steel was one among the 12 major accounts referred to the National Company Law Tribunal at the behest of the Reserve Bank of India last year to ease the burden of bad loans on banks. The proceeds from the acquisition will go towards settling almost two-thirds of the total outstanding liabilities of over ₹56,000 crore that Bhushan Steel owes banks. While it may be unwise to read too much into a single case, the Bhushan Steel resolution is nevertheless an encouraging sign for banks because they typically manage to recover only about 25% of their money from defaulters. In fact, between April 2014 and September 2017, the bad loan recovery rate of public sector banks was as low as 11%, with non-performing assets worth ₹2.41 lakh crore written off from their books. The Finance Ministry now expects banks to recover more than ₹1 lakh crore from the resolution of the other cases referred by the RBI to the NCLT. If the banks do indeed recover funds of this scale, it would considerably reduce the burden on taxpayers, who would otherwise have to foot the bill for any recapitalization of banks. Even more important, speedy resolution would free valuable assets to be used for wealth-creation.

The resolution of one high-profile case, however, should not deflect attention from the many challenges still plaguing the bankruptcy resolution process. The IBC, as the government itself has admitted, remains a work in progress. This is a welcome piece of legislation to the extent that it subsumes a plethora of laws that confused creditors; instead it now offers a more streamlined way to deal with troubled assets. But issues such as the proposed eligibility criteria for bidders have left it bogged down and suppressed its capacity to help out creditors efficiently. Also, the strict time limit for the resolution process as mandated by the IBC is an area that has drawn much attention, and it merits further review in order to balance the twin objectives of speedy resolution and maximising recovery for the lenders. To its credit, the government has been willing to hear out suggestions. It would do well to implement the recommendations of the Insolvency Law Committee which, among other things, has vouched for relaxed bidder eligibility criteria. Going forward, amendments to the bankruptcy code should primarily be driven by the goal of maximising the sale price of stressed assets. This requires a robust market for stressed assets that is free from all kinds of entry barriers.

What is true about Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code according to the passage?

Directions

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below them. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Good news has finally started to roll out of the refurbished bankruptcy courts. Tata Steel acquired 73% stake in the bankrupt firm Bhushan Steel for about ₹35,000 crore last week, making it the first major resolution of a bankruptcy case under the new Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC). Bhushan Steel was one among the 12 major accounts referred to the National Company Law Tribunal at the behest of the Reserve Bank of India last year to ease the burden of bad loans on banks. The proceeds from the acquisition will go towards settling almost two-thirds of the total outstanding liabilities of over ₹56,000 crore that Bhushan Steel owes banks. While it may be unwise to read too much into a single case, the Bhushan Steel resolution is nevertheless an encouraging sign for banks because they typically manage to recover only about 25% of their money from defaulters. In fact, between April 2014 and September 2017, the bad loan recovery rate of public sector banks was as low as 11%, with non-performing assets worth ₹2.41 lakh crore written off from their books. The Finance Ministry now expects banks to recover more than ₹1 lakh crore from the resolution of the other cases referred by the RBI to the NCLT. If the banks do indeed recover funds of this scale, it would considerably reduce the burden on taxpayers, who would otherwise have to foot the bill for any recapitalization of banks. Even more important, speedy resolution would free valuable assets to be used for wealth-creation.

The resolution of one high-profile case, however, should not deflect attention from the many challenges still plaguing the bankruptcy resolution process. The IBC, as the government itself has admitted, remains a work in progress. This is a welcome piece of legislation to the extent that it subsumes a plethora of laws that confused creditors; instead it now offers a more streamlined way to deal with troubled assets. But issues such as the proposed eligibility criteria for bidders have left it bogged down and suppressed its capacity to help out creditors efficiently. Also, the strict time limit for the resolution process as mandated by the IBC is an area that has drawn much attention, and it merits further review in order to balance the twin objectives of speedy resolution and maximising recovery for the lenders. To its credit, the government has been willing to hear out suggestions. It would do well to implement the recommendations of the Insolvency Law Committee which, among other things, has vouched for relaxed bidder eligibility criteria. Going forward, amendments to the bankruptcy code should primarily be driven by the goal of maximising the sale price of stressed assets. This requires a robust market for stressed assets that is free from all kinds of entry barriers.

What are the objectives of IBC?

Directions

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below them. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Good news has finally started to roll out of the refurbished bankruptcy courts. Tata Steel acquired 73% stake in the bankrupt firm Bhushan Steel for about ₹35,000 crore last week, making it the first major resolution of a bankruptcy case under the new Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC). Bhushan Steel was one among the 12 major accounts referred to the National Company Law Tribunal at the behest of the Reserve Bank of India last year to ease the burden of bad loans on banks. The proceeds from the acquisition will go towards settling almost two-thirds of the total outstanding liabilities of over ₹56,000 crore that Bhushan Steel owes banks. While it may be unwise to read too much into a single case, the Bhushan Steel resolution is nevertheless an encouraging sign for banks because they typically manage to recover only about 25% of their money from defaulters. In fact, between April 2014 and September 2017, the bad loan recovery rate of public sector banks was as low as 11%, with non-performing assets worth ₹2.41 lakh crore written off from their books. The Finance Ministry now expects banks to recover more than ₹1 lakh crore from the resolution of the other cases referred by the RBI to the NCLT. If the banks do indeed recover funds of this scale, it would considerably reduce the burden on taxpayers, who would otherwise have to foot the bill for any recapitalization of banks. Even more important, speedy resolution would free valuable assets to be used for wealth-creation.

The resolution of one high-profile case, however, should not deflect attention from the many challenges still plaguing the bankruptcy resolution process. The IBC, as the government itself has admitted, remains a work in progress. This is a welcome piece of legislation to the extent that it subsumes a plethora of laws that confused creditors; instead it now offers a more streamlined way to deal with troubled assets. But issues such as the proposed eligibility criteria for bidders have left it bogged down and suppressed its capacity to help out creditors efficiently. Also, the strict time limit for the resolution process as mandated by the IBC is an area that has drawn much attention, and it merits further review in order to balance the twin objectives of speedy resolution and maximising recovery for the lenders. To its credit, the government has been willing to hear out suggestions. It would do well to implement the recommendations of the Insolvency Law Committee which, among other things, has vouched for relaxed bidder eligibility criteria. Going forward, amendments to the bankruptcy code should primarily be driven by the goal of maximising the sale price of stressed assets. This requires a robust market for stressed assets that is free from all kinds of entry barriers.

The passage is about

Directions

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below them. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Good news has finally started to roll out of the refurbished bankruptcy courts. Tata Steel acquired 73% stake in the bankrupt firm Bhushan Steel for about ₹35,000 crore last week, making it the first major resolution of a bankruptcy case under the new Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC). Bhushan Steel was one among the 12 major accounts referred to the National Company Law Tribunal at the behest of the Reserve Bank of India last year to ease the burden of bad loans on banks. The proceeds from the acquisition will go towards settling almost two-thirds of the total outstanding liabilities of over ₹56,000 crore that Bhushan Steel owes banks. While it may be unwise to read too much into a single case, the Bhushan Steel resolution is nevertheless an encouraging sign for banks because they typically manage to recover only about 25% of their money from defaulters. In fact, between April 2014 and September 2017, the bad loan recovery rate of public sector banks was as low as 11%, with non-performing assets worth ₹2.41 lakh crore written off from their books. The Finance Ministry now expects banks to recover more than ₹1 lakh crore from the resolution of the other cases referred by the RBI to the NCLT. If the banks do indeed recover funds of this scale, it would considerably reduce the burden on taxpayers, who would otherwise have to foot the bill for any recapitalization of banks. Even more important, speedy resolution would free valuable assets to be used for wealth-creation.

The resolution of one high-profile case, however, should not deflect attention from the many challenges still plaguing the bankruptcy resolution process. The IBC, as the government itself has admitted, remains a work in progress. This is a welcome piece of legislation to the extent that it subsumes a plethora of laws that confused creditors; instead it now offers a more streamlined way to deal with troubled assets. But issues such as the proposed eligibility criteria for bidders have left it bogged down and suppressed its capacity to help out creditors efficiently. Also, the strict time limit for the resolution process as mandated by the IBC is an area that has drawn much attention, and it merits further review in order to balance the twin objectives of speedy resolution and maximising recovery for the lenders. To its credit, the government has been willing to hear out suggestions. It would do well to implement the recommendations of the Insolvency Law Committee which, among other things, has vouched for relaxed bidder eligibility criteria. Going forward, amendments to the bankruptcy code should primarily be driven by the goal of maximising the sale price of stressed assets. This requires a robust market for stressed assets that is free from all kinds of entry barriers.

Choose the word from the given options which has the meaning most similar to the word given below as used in the passage.

Behest

Directions

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below them. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Good news has finally started to roll out of the refurbished bankruptcy courts. Tata Steel acquired 73% stake in the bankrupt firm Bhushan Steel for about ₹35,000 crore last week, making it the first major resolution of a bankruptcy case under the new Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC). Bhushan Steel was one among the 12 major accounts referred to the National Company Law Tribunal at the behest of the Reserve Bank of India last year to ease the burden of bad loans on banks. The proceeds from the acquisition will go towards settling almost two-thirds of the total outstanding liabilities of over ₹56,000 crore that Bhushan Steel owes banks. While it may be unwise to read too much into a single case, the Bhushan Steel resolution is nevertheless an encouraging sign for banks because they typically manage to recover only about 25% of their money from defaulters. In fact, between April 2014 and September 2017, the bad loan recovery rate of public sector banks was as low as 11%, with non-performing assets worth ₹2.41 lakh crore written off from their books. The Finance Ministry now expects banks to recover more than ₹1 lakh crore from the resolution of the other cases referred by the RBI to the NCLT. If the banks do indeed recover funds of this scale, it would considerably reduce the burden on taxpayers, who would otherwise have to foot the bill for any recapitalization of banks. Even more important, speedy resolution would free valuable assets to be used for wealth-creation.

The resolution of one high-profile case, however, should not deflect attention from the many challenges still plaguing the bankruptcy resolution process. The IBC, as the government itself has admitted, remains a work in progress. This is a welcome piece of legislation to the extent that it subsumes a plethora of laws that confused creditors; instead it now offers a more streamlined way to deal with troubled assets. But issues such as the proposed eligibility criteria for bidders have left it bogged down and suppressed its capacity to help out creditors efficiently. Also, the strict time limit for the resolution process as mandated by the IBC is an area that has drawn much attention, and it merits further review in order to balance the twin objectives of speedy resolution and maximising recovery for the lenders. To its credit, the government has been willing to hear out suggestions. It would do well to implement the recommendations of the Insolvency Law Committee which, among other things, has vouched for relaxed bidder eligibility criteria. Going forward, amendments to the bankruptcy code should primarily be driven by the goal of maximising the sale price of stressed assets. This requires a robust market for stressed assets that is free from all kinds of entry barriers.

Choose the word from the given options which has the meaning most similar to the word given below as used in the passage.

Plaguing

Directions

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below them. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Good news has finally started to roll out of the refurbished bankruptcy courts. Tata Steel acquired 73% stake in the bankrupt firm Bhushan Steel for about ₹35,000 crore last week, making it the first major resolution of a bankruptcy case under the new Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC). Bhushan Steel was one among the 12 major accounts referred to the National Company Law Tribunal at the behest of the Reserve Bank of India last year to ease the burden of bad loans on banks. The proceeds from the acquisition will go towards settling almost two-thirds of the total outstanding liabilities of over ₹56,000 crore that Bhushan Steel owes banks. While it may be unwise to read too much into a single case, the Bhushan Steel resolution is nevertheless an encouraging sign for banks because they typically manage to recover only about 25% of their money from defaulters. In fact, between April 2014 and September 2017, the bad loan recovery rate of public sector banks was as low as 11%, with non-performing assets worth ₹2.41 lakh crore written off from their books. The Finance Ministry now expects banks to recover more than ₹1 lakh crore from the resolution of the other cases referred by the RBI to the NCLT. If the banks do indeed recover funds of this scale, it would considerably reduce the burden on taxpayers, who would otherwise have to foot the bill for any recapitalization of banks. Even more important, speedy resolution would free valuable assets to be used for wealth-creation.

The resolution of one high-profile case, however, should not deflect attention from the many challenges still plaguing the bankruptcy resolution process. The IBC, as the government itself has admitted, remains a work in progress. This is a welcome piece of legislation to the extent that it subsumes a plethora of laws that confused creditors; instead it now offers a more streamlined way to deal with troubled assets. But issues such as the proposed eligibility criteria for bidders have left it bogged down and suppressed its capacity to help out creditors efficiently. Also, the strict time limit for the resolution process as mandated by the IBC is an area that has drawn much attention, and it merits further review in order to balance the twin objectives of speedy resolution and maximising recovery for the lenders. To its credit, the government has been willing to hear out suggestions. It would do well to implement the recommendations of the Insolvency Law Committee which, among other things, has vouched for relaxed bidder eligibility criteria. Going forward, amendments to the bankruptcy code should primarily be driven by the goal of maximising the sale price of stressed assets. This requires a robust market for stressed assets that is free from all kinds of entry barriers.

Choose the word from the given options which has the meaning most opposite to the word given below as used in the passage.

Subsumes

Directions

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below them. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Good news has finally started to roll out of the refurbished bankruptcy courts. Tata Steel acquired 73% stake in the bankrupt firm Bhushan Steel for about ₹35,000 crore last week, making it the first major resolution of a bankruptcy case under the new Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC). Bhushan Steel was one among the 12 major accounts referred to the National Company Law Tribunal at the behest of the Reserve Bank of India last year to ease the burden of bad loans on banks. The proceeds from the acquisition will go towards settling almost two-thirds of the total outstanding liabilities of over ₹56,000 crore that Bhushan Steel owes banks. While it may be unwise to read too much into a single case, the Bhushan Steel resolution is nevertheless an encouraging sign for banks because they typically manage to recover only about 25% of their money from defaulters. In fact, between April 2014 and September 2017, the bad loan recovery rate of public sector banks was as low as 11%, with non-performing assets worth ₹2.41 lakh crore written off from their books. The Finance Ministry now expects banks to recover more than ₹1 lakh crore from the resolution of the other cases referred by the RBI to the NCLT. If the banks do indeed recover funds of this scale, it would considerably reduce the burden on taxpayers, who would otherwise have to foot the bill for any recapitalization of banks. Even more important, speedy resolution would free valuable assets to be used for wealth-creation.

The resolution of one high-profile case, however, should not deflect attention from the many challenges still plaguing the bankruptcy resolution process. The IBC, as the government itself has admitted, remains a work in progress. This is a welcome piece of legislation to the extent that it subsumes a plethora of laws that confused creditors; instead it now offers a more streamlined way to deal with troubled assets. But issues such as the proposed eligibility criteria for bidders have left it bogged down and suppressed its capacity to help out creditors efficiently. Also, the strict time limit for the resolution process as mandated by the IBC is an area that has drawn much attention, and it merits further review in order to balance the twin objectives of speedy resolution and maximising recovery for the lenders. To its credit, the government has been willing to hear out suggestions. It would do well to implement the recommendations of the Insolvency Law Committee which, among other things, has vouched for relaxed bidder eligibility criteria. Going forward, amendments to the bankruptcy code should primarily be driven by the goal of maximising the sale price of stressed assets. This requires a robust market for stressed assets that is free from all kinds of entry barriers.

Choose the word from the given options which has the meaning most opposite to the word given below as used in the passage.

Plethora

Directions

In the following passage, some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningfully complete.

Cities are economically vibrant spaces around the world and _____(111)_____ a large number of rural migrants looking for better prospects. This is a sustained trend, particularly in developing countries now, as production, jobs and markets _____(112)______ concentrated. More evidence of this comes from the UN Department of Economic and Social Affairs, which has released its 2018 Revision of the World Urbanization Prospects. ______(113)_______ for the year 2050, the UN agency estimates that the percentage of urban residents in India ______(114)______ be 52.8, compared to 34 today, while Delhi would edge past Tokyo as the world’s most populous city by 2028. India, China and Nigeria are _______(115)_______ to lead other countries and account for 35% of the projected growth in urban population by mid-century. This forecast frames the challenge _____(116)_____ developing countries, India in particular. Urbanization in the country is a complex process, since it is defined not by a constant migration of rural residents but _____(117)_______ the flow of workers, mostly men, and the ______(118)_______ of big cities through the addition of neighboring towns. Among governments there is a strong policy emphasis on improving facilities in rural areas, indicating a political preference for _____(119)_____ migration to urban centers, although there is a natural economic magnetism to cities. The imperative before the Centre and State governments is to _____(120)______ up with policies that provide adequate services in the villages, while investing in cities to ensure that their high levels of productivity and efficiency are not compromised.

Find the appropriate  word.

Directions

In the following passage, some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningfully complete.

Cities are economically vibrant spaces around the world and _____(111)_____ a large number of rural migrants looking for better prospects. This is a sustained trend, particularly in developing countries now, as production, jobs and markets _____(112)______ concentrated. More evidence of this comes from the UN Department of Economic and Social Affairs, which has released its 2018 Revision of the World Urbanization Prospects. ______(113)_______ for the year 2050, the UN agency estimates that the percentage of urban residents in India ______(114)______ be 52.8, compared to 34 today, while Delhi would edge past Tokyo as the world’s most populous city by 2028. India, China and Nigeria are _______(115)_______ to lead other countries and account for 35% of the projected growth in urban population by mid-century. This forecast frames the challenge _____(116)_____ developing countries, India in particular. Urbanization in the country is a complex process, since it is defined not by a constant migration of rural residents but _____(117)_______ the flow of workers, mostly men, and the ______(118)_______ of big cities through the addition of neighboring towns. Among governments there is a strong policy emphasis on improving facilities in rural areas, indicating a political preference for _____(119)_____ migration to urban centers, although there is a natural economic magnetism to cities. The imperative before the Centre and State governments is to _____(120)______ up with policies that provide adequate services in the villages, while investing in cities to ensure that their high levels of productivity and efficiency are not compromised.

Find the appropriate  word.

Directions

In the following passage, some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningfully complete.

Cities are economically vibrant spaces around the world and _____(111)_____ a large number of rural migrants looking for better prospects. This is a sustained trend, particularly in developing countries now, as production, jobs and markets _____(112)______ concentrated. More evidence of this comes from the UN Department of Economic and Social Affairs, which has released its 2018 Revision of the World Urbanization Prospects. ______(113)_______ for the year 2050, the UN agency estimates that the percentage of urban residents in India ______(114)______ be 52.8, compared to 34 today, while Delhi would edge past Tokyo as the world’s most populous city by 2028. India, China and Nigeria are _______(115)_______ to lead other countries and account for 35% of the projected growth in urban population by mid-century. This forecast frames the challenge _____(116)_____ developing countries, India in particular. Urbanization in the country is a complex process, since it is defined not by a constant migration of rural residents but _____(117)_______ the flow of workers, mostly men, and the ______(118)_______ of big cities through the addition of neighboring towns. Among governments there is a strong policy emphasis on improving facilities in rural areas, indicating a political preference for _____(119)_____ migration to urban centers, although there is a natural economic magnetism to cities. The imperative before the Centre and State governments is to _____(120)______ up with policies that provide adequate services in the villages, while investing in cities to ensure that their high levels of productivity and efficiency are not compromised.

Find the appropriate  word.

Directions

In the following passage, some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningfully complete.

Cities are economically vibrant spaces around the world and _____(111)_____ a large number of rural migrants looking for better prospects. This is a sustained trend, particularly in developing countries now, as production, jobs and markets _____(112)______ concentrated. More evidence of this comes from the UN Department of Economic and Social Affairs, which has released its 2018 Revision of the World Urbanization Prospects. ______(113)_______ for the year 2050, the UN agency estimates that the percentage of urban residents in India ______(114)______ be 52.8, compared to 34 today, while Delhi would edge past Tokyo as the world’s most populous city by 2028. India, China and Nigeria are _______(115)_______ to lead other countries and account for 35% of the projected growth in urban population by mid-century. This forecast frames the challenge _____(116)_____ developing countries, India in particular. Urbanization in the country is a complex process, since it is defined not by a constant migration of rural residents but _____(117)_______ the flow of workers, mostly men, and the ______(118)_______ of big cities through the addition of neighboring towns. Among governments there is a strong policy emphasis on improving facilities in rural areas, indicating a political preference for _____(119)_____ migration to urban centers, although there is a natural economic magnetism to cities. The imperative before the Centre and State governments is to _____(120)______ up with policies that provide adequate services in the villages, while investing in cities to ensure that their high levels of productivity and efficiency are not compromised.

Find the appropriate word.

Directions

In the following passage, some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningfully complete.

Cities are economically vibrant spaces around the world and _____(111)_____ a large number of rural migrants looking for better prospects. This is a sustained trend, particularly in developing countries now, as production, jobs and markets _____(112)______ concentrated. More evidence of this comes from the UN Department of Economic and Social Affairs, which has released its 2018 Revision of the World Urbanization Prospects. ______(113)_______ for the year 2050, the UN agency estimates that the percentage of urban residents in India ______(114)______ be 52.8, compared to 34 today, while Delhi would edge past Tokyo as the world’s most populous city by 2028. India, China and Nigeria are _______(115)_______ to lead other countries and account for 35% of the projected growth in urban population by mid-century. This forecast frames the challenge _____(116)_____ developing countries, India in particular. Urbanization in the country is a complex process, since it is defined not by a constant migration of rural residents but _____(117)_______ the flow of workers, mostly men, and the ______(118)_______ of big cities through the addition of neighboring towns. Among governments there is a strong policy emphasis on improving facilities in rural areas, indicating a political preference for _____(119)_____ migration to urban centers, although there is a natural economic magnetism to cities. The imperative before the Centre and State governments is to _____(120)______ up with policies that provide adequate services in the villages, while investing in cities to ensure that their high levels of productivity and efficiency are not compromised.

Find the appropriate word.

Directions

In the following passage, some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningfully complete.

Cities are economically vibrant spaces around the world and _____(111)_____ a large number of rural migrants looking for better prospects. This is a sustained trend, particularly in developing countries now, as production, jobs and markets _____(112)______ concentrated. More evidence of this comes from the UN Department of Economic and Social Affairs, which has released its 2018 Revision of the World Urbanization Prospects. ______(113)_______ for the year 2050, the UN agency estimates that the percentage of urban residents in India ______(114)______ be 52.8, compared to 34 today, while Delhi would edge past Tokyo as the world’s most populous city by 2028. India, China and Nigeria are _______(115)_______ to lead other countries and account for 35% of the projected growth in urban population by mid-century. This forecast frames the challenge _____(116)_____ developing countries, India in particular. Urbanization in the country is a complex process, since it is defined not by a constant migration of rural residents but _____(117)_______ the flow of workers, mostly men, and the ______(118)_______ of big cities through the addition of neighboring towns. Among governments there is a strong policy emphasis on improving facilities in rural areas, indicating a political preference for _____(119)_____ migration to urban centers, although there is a natural economic magnetism to cities. The imperative before the Centre and State governments is to _____(120)______ up with policies that provide adequate services in the villages, while investing in cities to ensure that their high levels of productivity and efficiency are not compromised.

Find the appropriate word.

Directions

In the following passage, some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningfully complete.

Cities are economically vibrant spaces around the world and _____(111)_____ a large number of rural migrants looking for better prospects. This is a sustained trend, particularly in developing countries now, as production, jobs and markets _____(112)______ concentrated. More evidence of this comes from the UN Department of Economic and Social Affairs, which has released its 2018 Revision of the World Urbanization Prospects. ______(113)_______ for the year 2050, the UN agency estimates that the percentage of urban residents in India ______(114)______ be 52.8, compared to 34 today, while Delhi would edge past Tokyo as the world’s most populous city by 2028. India, China and Nigeria are _______(115)_______ to lead other countries and account for 35% of the projected growth in urban population by mid-century. This forecast frames the challenge _____(116)_____ developing countries, India in particular. Urbanization in the country is a complex process, since it is defined not by a constant migration of rural residents but _____(117)_______ the flow of workers, mostly men, and the ______(118)_______ of big cities through the addition of neighboring towns. Among governments there is a strong policy emphasis on improving facilities in rural areas, indicating a political preference for _____(119)_____ migration to urban centers, although there is a natural economic magnetism to cities. The imperative before the Centre and State governments is to _____(120)______ up with policies that provide adequate services in the villages, while investing in cities to ensure that their high levels of productivity and efficiency are not compromised.

Find the appropriate word.

Directions

In the following passage, some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningfully complete.

Cities are economically vibrant spaces around the world and _____(111)_____ a large number of rural migrants looking for better prospects. This is a sustained trend, particularly in developing countries now, as production, jobs and markets _____(112)______ concentrated. More evidence of this comes from the UN Department of Economic and Social Affairs, which has released its 2018 Revision of the World Urbanization Prospects. ______(113)_______ for the year 2050, the UN agency estimates that the percentage of urban residents in India ______(114)______ be 52.8, compared to 34 today, while Delhi would edge past Tokyo as the world’s most populous city by 2028. India, China and Nigeria are _______(115)_______ to lead other countries and account for 35% of the projected growth in urban population by mid-century. This forecast frames the challenge _____(116)_____ developing countries, India in particular. Urbanization in the country is a complex process, since it is defined not by a constant migration of rural residents but _____(117)_______ the flow of workers, mostly men, and the ______(118)_______ of big cities through the addition of neighboring towns. Among governments there is a strong policy emphasis on improving facilities in rural areas, indicating a political preference for _____(119)_____ migration to urban centers, although there is a natural economic magnetism to cities. The imperative before the Centre and State governments is to _____(120)______ up with policies that provide adequate services in the villages, while investing in cities to ensure that their high levels of productivity and efficiency are not compromised.

Find the appropriate word.

Directions

In the following passage, some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningfully complete.

Cities are economically vibrant spaces around the world and _____(111)_____ a large number of rural migrants looking for better prospects. This is a sustained trend, particularly in developing countries now, as production, jobs and markets _____(112)______ concentrated. More evidence of this comes from the UN Department of Economic and Social Affairs, which has released its 2018 Revision of the World Urbanization Prospects. ______(113)_______ for the year 2050, the UN agency estimates that the percentage of urban residents in India ______(114)______ be 52.8, compared to 34 today, while Delhi would edge past Tokyo as the world’s most populous city by 2028. India, China and Nigeria are _______(115)_______ to lead other countries and account for 35% of the projected growth in urban population by mid-century. This forecast frames the challenge _____(116)_____ developing countries, India in particular. Urbanization in the country is a complex process, since it is defined not by a constant migration of rural residents but _____(117)_______ the flow of workers, mostly men, and the ______(118)_______ of big cities through the addition of neighboring towns. Among governments there is a strong policy emphasis on improving facilities in rural areas, indicating a political preference for _____(119)_____ migration to urban centers, although there is a natural economic magnetism to cities. The imperative before the Centre and State governments is to _____(120)______ up with policies that provide adequate services in the villages, while investing in cities to ensure that their high levels of productivity and efficiency are not compromised.

Find the appropriate word.

Directions

In the following passage, some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningfully complete.

Cities are economically vibrant spaces around the world and _____(111)_____ a large number of rural migrants looking for better prospects. This is a sustained trend, particularly in developing countries now, as production, jobs and markets _____(112)______ concentrated. More evidence of this comes from the UN Department of Economic and Social Affairs, which has released its 2018 Revision of the World Urbanization Prospects. ______(113)_______ for the year 2050, the UN agency estimates that the percentage of urban residents in India ______(114)______ be 52.8, compared to 34 today, while Delhi would edge past Tokyo as the world’s most populous city by 2028. India, China and Nigeria are _______(115)_______ to lead other countries and account for 35% of the projected growth in urban population by mid-century. This forecast frames the challenge _____(116)_____ developing countries, India in particular. Urbanization in the country is a complex process, since it is defined not by a constant migration of rural residents but _____(117)_______ the flow of workers, mostly men, and the ______(118)_______ of big cities through the addition of neighboring towns. Among governments there is a strong policy emphasis on improving facilities in rural areas, indicating a political preference for _____(119)_____ migration to urban centers, although there is a natural economic magnetism to cities. The imperative before the Centre and State governments is to _____(120)______ up with policies that provide adequate services in the villages, while investing in cities to ensure that their high levels of productivity and efficiency are not compromised.

Find the appropriate word.

Directions

Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:

 Total production = 25 lakhs

Find the difference between the production of sports and luxury cars in Chennai?  

Directions

Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:

 Total production = 25 lakhs

Find the average production of sports cars in all the cities?  

Directions

Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:

 Total production = 25 lakhs

Find the ratio of production of Luxury cars in Pune to that of sports cars in Delhi?  

Directions

Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:

 Total production = 25 lakhs

The production of Luxury cars in Nagpur is approximately how many times the production of sports cars in Gurgaon?  

Directions

Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:

 Total production = 25 lakhs

The production of sports cars in Gurgaon is approximately how many times the production of luxury cars in Pune?

Directions

Study the given bar graph and pie chart to answer the following questions.

The bar graph shows the production (in thousand tonnes) of Sugarcane, Jute and Cotton in different states.

Productivity = total production/area of agricultural land

Agricultural land = 4 lakh sq. km

The productivity of which state is the maximum? 

Directions

Study the given bar graph and pie chart to answer the following questions.

The bar graph shows the production (in thousand tonnes) of Sugarcane, Jute and Cotton in different states.

Productivity = total production/area of agricultural land

Agricultural land = 4 lakh sq. km

The production of which state is the maximum? 

Directions

Study the given bar graph and pie chart to answer the following questions.

The bar graph shows the production (in thousand tonnes) of Sugarcane, Jute and Cotton in different states.

Productivity = total production/area of agricultural land

Agricultural land = 4 lakh sq. km

The production of sugarcane in Punjab is what percent more than the production of cotton in Odisha?

Directions

Study the given bar graph and pie chart to answer the following questions.

The bar graph shows the production (in thousand tonnes) of Sugarcane, Jute and Cotton in different states.

Productivity = total production/area of agricultural land

Agricultural land = 4 lakh sq. km

What is the ratio of the production of Cotton in UP to the production of Sugarcane in Haryana?

Directions

Study the given bar graph and pie chart to answer the following questions.

The bar graph shows the production (in thousand tonnes) of Sugarcane, Jute and Cotton in different states.

Productivity = total production/area of agricultural land

Agricultural land = 4 lakh sq. km

If MP exports 40% of jute at the rate of Rs.30 per kg and UP exports 30% of jute at the rate of Rs.32 per kg, then what is the ratio of the incomes from the exports?

Directions

Study the given information and answer the following questions.

The ratio of male adults to female adults in Ramdiri village is 17 : 23, while the difference between them is 1500. The total number of adults in Ramdiri village is 50% of the total population of this village. In Sihma village there are 3250 female adults which is 52% of the total adults of Sihma village and 40 5/8% of the total population of this village. The total number of adults in Minapur is 5400 out of which 5/9 are female. The male adults in Minapur are 3/17 of the total population of this village. In Barauni village, total number of adults is 35% of the total population. Female adults in this village were 75% of the male adults in this village. Total adults in Barauni village are 5250.

Total population of five villages together is 79100. Total adults in Khamhar village are 45% of the population of this village while the difference between number of male adults and female adults in this village is 2013. (male adults are more than female adults in Khamhar village) 

What is the total number of female adults in all the villages together?

Directions

Study the given information and answer the following questions.

The ratio of male adults to female adults in Ramdiri village is 17 : 23, while the difference between them is 1500. The total number of adults in Ramdiri village is 50% of the total population of this village. In Sihma village there are 3250 female adults which is 52% of the total adults of Sihma village and 40 5/8% of the total population of this village. The total number of adults in Minapur is 5400 out of which 5/9 are female. The male adults in Minapur are 3/17 of the total population of this village. In Barauni village, total number of adults is 35% of the total population. Female adults in this village were 75% of the male adults in this village. Total adults in Barauni village are 5250.

Total population of five villages together is 79100. Total adults in Khamhar village are 45% of the population of this village while the difference between number of male adults and female adults in this village is 2013. (male adults are more than female adults in Khamhar village) 

Total number of adults in Ramdhiri village is what percent more than that in Sihma village?

Directions

Study the given information and answer the following questions.

The ratio of male adults to female adults in Ramdiri village is 17 : 23, while the difference between them is 1500. The total number of adults in Ramdiri village is 50% of the total population of this village. In Sihma village there are 3250 female adults which is 52% of the total adults of Sihma village and 40 5/8% of the total population of this village. The total number of adults in Minapur is 5400 out of which 5/9 are female. The male adults in Minapur are 3/17 of the total population of this village. In Barauni village, total number of adults is 35% of the total population. Female adults in this village were 75% of the male adults in this village. Total adults in Barauni village are 5250.

Total population of five villages together is 79100. Total adults in Khamhar village are 45% of the population of this village while the difference between number of male adults and female adults in this village is 2013. (male adults are more than female adults in Khamhar village) 

What is the total number of male adults in all the villages together?