04 March 2023

Q1. Which among the following is the main constituents of Biogas:

1. Methane and Carbon Dioxide
2. Methane and Nitrogen
3. Methane and Hydrogen
4. Methane and Hydrogen Sulfide

Solution:  (A)

• Biogas comprises primarily methane (CH4) and carbon dioxide (CO2) and may have small amounts of Nitrogen, Hydrogen, hydrogen sulphide and oxygen.

Q2. Consider the following statements regarding “The Climate and Clean Air Coalition”:

• It is a voluntary partnership of governments and intergovernmental organizations, businesses, scientific institutions and civil society organizations.
• India is a state partner of this coalition.
• Coalition’s initial focus is on pollutants like methane, black carbon and HFCs.

Which of the above statements is/are correct:

1. 1 only
2. 2, 3
3. 1, 3
4. 1, 2, 3

Solution: (C)

• The Climate and Clean Air Coalition is a voluntary partnership of governments, intergovernmental organizations, businesses, scientific institutions and civil society organizations committed to improving air quality and protecting the climate through actions to reduce short-lived climate pollutants.
• Global network currently includes over 120 state and non-state partners, and hundreds of local actors carrying out activities across economic sectors.
• India is not a partner of it.
• It focuses on short lived pollutants like methane, black carbon, HFC’s etc.

Q3.Consider the following statements with reference to Food chains:

• The grazing food chain is found only in terrestrial ecosystem.
• The grazing and detritus food chains are not interlinked.
• The initial energy source for detritus food chain is dead organic matter.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect:

1. 1 only
2. 1, 3
3. 1, 2
4. 2, 3

Solution: (C)

• A sequence of organisms that feed on one another, forma food chain.
• In nature, two main types of food chains have been found: Grazing food chain and Detritus food chain.
• The grazing food chain starts with producers or autotrophs as base, which is consumed by heterotrophs.
• It is found in both Terrestrial and aquatic ecosystems.
• The Detritus food chain starts from dead organic ‘matter of decaying animals and plant bodies to the microorganisms and then to detritus feeding organism called detrivores or decomposer and to other predators.
• The two food chains are linked as the initial energy source for detritus food chain is the waste materials and dead organic matter from the grazing food chain.

Q4. Consider the following statements regarding Eco-sensitive zones:

• Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESZs) are areas notified by the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change (MoEFCC) around Protected Areas, National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries.
• They act as a transition zone from areas of high protection to areas involving lesser protection.
• Eco-Sensitive Zones are defined and mentioned in Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.

Which of the above statements is/ are correct:

1. 1, 3
2. 2, 3
3. 1, 2
4. 1, 2, 3

Solution:  (C)

• Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESZs) or Ecologically Fragile Areas (EFAs) are areas notified by the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change (MoEFCC), Government of India around Protected Areas, National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries.
• The purpose of declaring ESZs is to create some kind of “shock absorbers” to the protected areas by regulating and managing the activities around such areas.
• They also act as a transition zone from areas of high protection to areas involving lesser protection.
• ESZ are regulated by central government through Min. of Environment, Forests and Climate change (MoEFCC).
• Ministry came out with new guidelines for regulation of such areas in 2011.
• The Environment Protection Act, 1986 does not mention the word “Eco-sensitive Zones”.

Q5. Which of the following are the ecosystem services provided by Wetlands:

• Water purification
• Aquifer recharge
• Microclimate regulation
• Aesthetic enhancement of landscapes

Select the correct answer code:

1. 1, 2, 3
2. 2, 3, 4
3. 1, 3, 4
4. 1, 2, 3, 4

Solution:  (D)

• The wetlands, vital parts of the hydrological cycle, are highly productive ecosystems which support rich biodiversity and provide a wide range of ecosystem services such as water storage, water purification, flood mitigation, erosion control, aquifer recharge, microclimate regulation, aesthetic enhancement of landscapes while simultaneously supporting many significant recreational, social and cultural activities, being part of our rich cultural heritage.

Q6. Consider the following statements about Photosynthetically Active Radiation (PAR):

• Photosynthetically Active Radiation (PAR) is the amount of light available for photosynthesis.
• PAR changes seasonally and varies depending on the latitude and time of day.
• Higher PAR leads to decrease in plant growth.
• Air pollution does have an effect on PAR.

Which of the above statements is/are correct:

1. 1, 2, 4
2. 1, 3, 4
3. 2, 3, 4
4. 1, 2, 3

Solution:  (A)

• Photosynthetically Active Radiation (PAR) is the amount of light available for photosynthesis, which is light in the 400 to 700 nanometer wavelength range.
• PAR changes seasonally and varies depending on the latitude and time of day.
• Levels are greatest during the summer at mid-day.
• Air pollution also affects PAR by filtering out the amount of sunlight that can reach plants.
• Photosynthetically Active Radiation is needed for photosynthesis and plant growth.
• Higher PAR promotes plant growth.

 Q7. With reference to the evolution of living organisms on earth, which of the following is the correct sequence of evolution:

1. Spiders-Snakes-Corals-Horses
2. Snakes-Spiders-Corals-Horses
3. Corals-Spiders-Snakes-Horses
4. Horses-Spiders-Snakes-Corals

Solution: (C)

• Living organisms were first evolved on seas and then moved to lands.
• Simple organisms like blue green algae, bacteria were first evolved, then it lead to corals, spiders and complex animals like snakes, horses etc.,

Q8. With reference to the ‘National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change (NAFCC)’, consider the following statements:

• It is a Central Sector Scheme.
• Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) is the National Implementing Entity (NIE).
• The overall aim of NAFCC is to support concrete adaptation activities which mitigate the adverse effects of climate change.

Which of the above statements is/are correct:

1. 1, 2
2. 1, 3
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2, 3

 Solution: (B)

• The National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change (NAFCC) is a Central Sector Scheme which was set up in the year 2015-16.
• The overall aim of NAFCC is to support concrete adaptation activities which mitigate the adverse effects of climate change.
• The activities under this scheme are implemented in a project mode.
• National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) is the National Implementing Entity (NIE).
• The projects related to adaptation in sectors such as agriculture, animal husbandry, water, forestry, tourism etc. are eligible for funding under NAFCC.

Q9. Phosphorus plays a central role in aquatic ecosystems and water quality. This is because:

• Phosphorus cycle is largely atmospheric and easily dissolves in water from air.
• Phosphorus is responsible for excessive growth of rooted and free-floating microscopic plants in water bodies.

Which of the above statements is/are correct:

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (B)

• Phosphorus cycle is mainly terrestrial.
• The main storage for phosphorus is in the earth’s crust.
• On land phosphorus is usually found in the form of phosphates.
• It occurs in large amounts as a mineral in phosphate rocks and enters the cycle from erosion and mining activities.
• By the process of weathering and erosion phosphates enter rivers and streams that transport them to the ocean.
• In the ocean once the phosphorus accumulates on continental shelves in the form of insoluble deposits.
• After millions of years, the crustal plates rise from the sea floor and expose the phosphates on land.
• After more time, weathering will release them from rock and the cycle’s geochemical phase begins again.
• Statement 2: Being an important nutrient, phosphorous promotes eutrophication in lakes.
• Along with nitrogen related compounds it leads to undesirable situations like algal bloom.

Q10. With reference to ecological balance, consider the following statements:

1. Ecological balance can happen when the diversity of the living organisms remains relatively stable.
2. The stability of an ecosystem always increases with the introduction of new species.

Which of the above statements is/are correct:

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (A)

• Introduction of new species into the ecosystem often cause disruption in stability of ecosystem.
• For ex: Presence of alien species like lantana in tropical deciduous forest has resulted in frequent forest fires.

Q11. Which of the following are the common characteristics of invasive species:

1. Rapid reproduction and growth.
2. High dispersal ability.
3. Phenotypic plasticity.

Select the correct answer code:

1. 1 only
2. 1, 2
3. 2, 3
4. 1, 2, 3

Solution: (D)

• Alien species become ‘invasive’ when they are introduced deliberately or accidentally outside their natural areas, where they out-compete the native species and upset the ecological balance.
• Invasive animal species pose a threat to biodiversity and human well-being.
• Common characteristics of invasive species include: Rapid reproduction and growth, High dispersal ability, Phenotypic plasticity (ability to adapt physiologically to new conditions), and Ability to survive on various food types and in a wide range of environmental conditions.

Q12. Consider the following statements regarding UN Environment Programme (UNEP):

1. The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) is the leading global environmental authority that sets the global environmental agenda and promotes the implementation of the environmental dimension of sustainable development within the United Nations system.
2. United Nations General Assembly is the UNEP’s governing body.
3. Emissions Gap Report 2019 is released by UNEP.

Which of the above statements is/are correct:

1. 1, 2
2. 1, 3
3. 2, 3
4. 1, 2, 3

Solution: (B)

• Recently, UN Environment Programme (UNEP) launched its tenth edition of Emissions Gap Report 2019.
• The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) is the leading global environmental authority that sets the global environmental agenda, promotes the coherent implementation of the environmental dimension of sustainable development within the United Nations system, and serves as an authoritative advocate for the global environment.
• Its mission is to provide leadership and encourage partnership in caring for the environment by inspiring, informing, and enabling nations and peoples to improve their quality of life without compromising that of future generations.
• United Nations Environment Assembly (UNEA) is governing body of the UNEP. Headquartered in Nairobi, Kenya.
• It depends on voluntary contributions for 95% of its funding.

Q13. United Nations Environment Programme host the secretariats of many multilateral environmental agreements and research bodies. These include:

1. The Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora
2. The Convention on Migratory Species
3. The Bamako Convention
4. The Tehran Convention

Select the correct answer code:

1. 1, 2
2. 1, 2, 3
3. 1, 2, 4
4. 1, 2, 3, 4

Solution: (D)

• UNEP host the secretariats of many critical multilateral environmental agreements and research bodies, bringing together nations and the environmental community to tackle the greatest challenges of our time.
• These include the following:
• The Convention on Biological Diversity
• The Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora
• The Minamata Convention on Mercury
• The Basel, Rotterdam and Stockholm Conventions
• The Vienna Convention for the Protection of Ozone Layer and the Montreal Protocol
• The Convention on Migratory Species
• The Carpathian Convention- subregional treaty to foster the sustainable development and the protection of the Carpathian region (Europe’s largest mountain range)
• The Bamako Convention- Treaty of African nations prohibiting the import into Africa of any hazardous waste.
• The Tehran Convention- Protection of the Marine Environment of the Caspian Sea.

Q14. Consider the following statements regarding Permafrost:

1. Permafrost is any ground that remains completely frozen for at least two months.
2. They are most common in regions with high mountains and in Earth’s higher latitudes.
3. There is approximately twice as much carbon in permafrost than is currently in the Earth’s atmosphere.

Which of the above statements is/are correct:

1. 1, 2
2. 1, 3
3. 2, 3
4. 1, 2, 3

Solution: (C)

• Permafrost is any ground that remains completely frozen—32°F (0°C) or colder—for at least two years straight.
• These permanently frozen grounds are most common in regions with high mountains and in Earth’s higher latitudes—near the North and South Poles.
• Permafrost covers large regions of the Earth.
• Almost a quarter of the land area in the Northern Hemisphere has permafrost underneath.
• Although the ground is frozen, permafrost regions are not always covered in snow.
• It can also be located in the Southern Hemisphere, just on mountain tops.
• Permafrost frequently occurs in ground ice, but it also can be presented in non-porous bedrock.
• Permafrost is formed from ice holding all different sorts of soil, sand, and rock combination together.
• There is approximately twice as much carbon in permafrost than is currently in the Earth’s atmosphere.

Q15. Which of the following microorganisms is/are used as Bio-fertilizers:

1. Rhizobium
2. Azospirillum
3. Azotobacter
4. Mycorrhiza

Select the correct answer code:

1. 1, 2, 3
2. 2, 3, 4
3. 1, 3, 4
4. 1, 2, 3, 4

Solution: (D)

• A biofertilizer is a substance which contains living microorganisms which, when applied, colonize the rhizosphere or the interior of the plant and promotes growth by increasing the supply or availability of primary nutrients to the host plant.
• There are five biofertilizers viz. Rhizobium, Azotobacter, Azospirillum, Phosphate Solubilizing Bacteria and mycorrhiza, which have been incorporated in India’s Fertilizer Control Order (FCO), 1985.
• Rhizobium, Azotobacter, Azospirillum and blue green algae (BGA) have been traditionally used as Biofertilizers.
• Blue green algae such as Nostoc, Anabaena, Tolypothrix and Aulosira fix atmospheric nitrogen.

Q16. What are the sources that add nitrogen oxides (NOx) into the atmosphere:

1. Bacteria living in soil
2. Reaction of Ultraviolet radiation with ozone
3. Lightning stroke

Select the correct answer code:

1. 1, 2
2. 1, 3
3. 2, 3
4. 1, 2, 3

Solution: (B)

• Nitrous oxide emissions occur naturally through many sources associated with the nitrogen cycle, which is the natural circulation of nitrogen among the atmosphere, plants, animals, and microorganisms that live in soil and water.
• Nitrous oxide is actually removed from the atmosphere when it is absorbed by certain types of bacteria or destroyed by ultraviolet radiation or chemical reactions.
• A natural source of nitrogen oxides occurs from a lightning stroke.
• The very high temperature in the vicinity of a lightning bolt causes the gases oxygen and nitrogen in the air to react to form nitric oxide.
• The nitric oxide very quickly reacts with more oxygen to form nitrogen dioxide.

Q17. Consider the following statements regarding ‘Agenda 21’:

1. Agenda 21 is a non-binding, voluntarily implemented action plan of the United Nations with regard to sustainable development.
2. The ’21’ in Agenda 21 refers to the 21 major industrial countries of the world.
3. It is a product of the Earth Summit (UN Conference on Environment and Development) held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, in 1992.

Which of the above statements is/are correct:

1. 1, 2
2. 3 only
3. 1, 3
4. 1, 2, 3

Solution:  (C)

• The ’21’ in Agenda 21 refers to the 21st century.
• Agenda 21 is a non-binding action plan of the United Nations with regard to sustainable development.
• It is a product of the Earth Summit (UN Conference on Environment and Development) held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, in 1992.

 Q18. Consider the following statements regarding National Board for Wildlife:

• It is a “Statutory Organization” constituted under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
• No alternation of boundaries in national parks and wildlife sanctuaries can be done without approval of the NBWL.
• Its recommendations are binding on the Central Government while framing policies and measures for conservation of wildlife in the country.
• The NBWL is chaired by the Environment Minister.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect:

1. 1, 2
2. 1, 2, 3
3. 3, 4
4. 2, 3, 4

Solution:  (C)

• National Board for Wildlife is a “Statutory Organization” constituted under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
• Its role is “advisory” in nature and advises the Central Government on framing policies and measures for conservation of wildlife in the country.
• Primary function of the Board is to promote the conservation and development of wildlife and forests.
• It has power to review all wildlife-related matters and approve projects in and around national parks and sanctuaries.
• No alternation of boundaries in national parks and wildlife sanctuaries can be done without approval of the NBWL.
• The NBWL is chaired by the Prime Minister.

Q19. Depending upon the amount of net primary productivity the various ecosystems can be arranged in a decreasing sequence of yield. Which of these is the correct order:

1. Tropical seasonal forest – Tropical rain forest – Temperate Grassland – Woodland and Shrub land.
2. Tropical seasonal forest – Tropical rain forest – Woodland and Shrubland – Temperate Grassland
3. Tropical rain forest – Temperate Grassland – Woodland and Shrubland – Tropical seasonal forest.
4. Tropical rain forest – Tropical seasonal forest – Woodland and Shrubland – Temperate Grassland.

Solution: (D)

• The order can be logically arrived at by elimination.
• Tropical rain forests receive overall more rainfall than seasonal forests and grasslands.
• So, (a) and (b) are eliminated.
• Also, a forest will certainly be more productive than grassland.
• So, (c) is also eliminated.
• Correct answer will be (d).

Q20. Birds Following Army Ants is an example for which of the following types of symbiotic relationship between organisms:

1. Mutualism
2. Parasitism
3. Commensalism
4. Competition

Solution: (C)

• Commensalism is a type of symbiotic relationship between organisms in which one organism benefits without harming the other.
• Many birds form a commensal relationship with some species of ants like the army ants.
• A great number of army ants trail on the forest floor, and while moving, stir up many insects lying in their path.
• The birds follow these army ants and eat up the insects that try to escape from them.
• The birds benefit by catching their prey easily, while the army ants are totally unaffected.