05 November 2022

Q. Take into account the following statements about the Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP) Program:

1. The programme aimed to encourage the use of alternative, environmentally benign fuels and to lessen reliance on imports for energy needs.
2. By 2022, the government wants to blend 10% ethanol into gasoline, and by 2030, it wants to blend 20%.
3. Additionally regarded as a renewable fuel is ethanol.

Which of the aforementioned statements is true?

• 1 and 2 only
• 2 and 3 only
• 1 and 3 only
• 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

• The statements are all true.
• In January 2003, the Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP) initiative was introduced.
• The programme aimed to encourage the use of alternative, environmentally benign fuels and to lessen reliance on imports for energy needs.
• In order to reduce pollution, preserve foreign currency, and boost value addition in the sugar business so that they can pay farmers’ cane price arrears, the Ethanol Blending Programme (EBP) aims to achieve the blending of ethanol with motor spirit.
• A product of the agricultural sector, ethanol is primarily made from molasses, a by-product of the sugar industry. The sugar business struggles to pay farmers their cane price on time during years of excess output of sugarcane and low prices.
• Ethanol is also regarded as a renewable fuel because it is made from plants that use solar energy.
• By 2022, the government wants to blend 10% ethanol into gasoline, and by 2030, it wants to blend 20%.

Q. Take into account the following claims about India Post Payments Bank (IPPB):

1. Under the Department of Posts, it is a wholly owned government corporation (DoP).
2. Customers may make deposits of up to Rs. 10 lakhs with them.

Which of the aforementioned statements is true?

• 1 only
• 2 only
• Both 1 and 2
• Neither 2 nor 2

Explanation

• India Post Payments Bank (IPPB), a wholly owned subsidiary of the Ministry of Communication’s Department of Posts (DoP). Therefore, statement 1 is true.
• It is a payments bank run by the Indian Postal Department, which employs roughly 4 lakh postmen and a network of post offices.
• Customers will be allowed to deposit up to Rs. 1 lakh with the government-owned payments bank. Therefore, assertion 1 is untrue.
• However, they are not permitted to make hazardous loans with higher interest rates using these money.
• Regular, digital, and basic savings accounts are the three types of accounts offered by India Post Payments Bank (IPPB).
• The Reserve Bank of India oversees it (RBI)

Q. Take into account the following statements about GOA MARITIME SYMPOSIUM.

1. The Indian Coast Guard developed it and implemented it in 2016.
2. The symposium is held twice a year.

Which of the aforementioned statements is true?

• 1 Only
• 2 Only
• Both 1 and 2
• Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

• The first statement is untrue.
• The Indian Navy conceptualised and launched the Goa Maritime Symposium (GMS) in 2016.
• It serves as a platform to promote cooperative thinking, cooperation, and understanding between India and important maritime states in the Indian Ocean region (IOR).
• The second statement is true.
• The Naval War College (NWC), Goa, hosts the symposium twice a year. There have been three previous iterations of the event.

Q. Take into account these statements about the Ballistic Missile Defence (BMD) interceptor AD-1 missile:

1. Long-range interceptor missile with strong exo- and endo-atmospheric interception capability.
2. It is capable of intercepting both aircraft and long-range ballistic missiles.
3. A sturdy, two-stage motor powers it.

Which of the aforementioned statements is true?

• 1 and 2 only
• 2 and 3 only
• 1 and 3 only
• 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

While 2 is true, statement 1 is false.

A long-range interceptor missile called the AD-1 (Air Defence) is made for the low exo- and endo-atmospheric interception of aeroplanes and long-range ballistic missiles.

The third statement is true.

• The missile has a two-stage solid motor for propulsion and a sophisticated control system that was created domestically. It also has a navigation and guidance algorithm that allows it to be directed precisely to targets moving at great speeds.
• According to reports, the DRDO began working on anti-ballistic missiles in the 2000s in response to Pakistan and China’s development of ballistic assets. The first phase of the programme, which included sophisticated air defence systems and air defence systems based on the Prithvi missile, is claimed to have been finished near the end of the 2010s.
• Developing anti-ballistic defence systems like the US’s Theatre High-Altitude Area Defence system, which can intercept intermediate-range ballistic missiles, is the emphasis of the second phase, sources claim.
• It is also rumoured that the AD-II, which can destroy missiles with even greater ranges, is in development.

Q. Take into account the following statements about Digital Life Certificates (Jeevanpramaan):

1. It is a digital service for retirees with biometric capabilities.
2. Over three crore retired government and PSU employees are the scheme’s beneficiaries.
3. The Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions created it.

Which of the aforementioned statements is true?

• 1 and 2 only
• 2 and 3 only
• 1 and 3 only
• 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

• The first and second claims are true.
• It is a digital life certificate for pensioners that uses AADHAR biometric authentication.
• The necessity that a pensioner present a physical Life Certificate in November of every year in order to maintain the continuity of their pension being credited into their account will be eliminated.
• Pensioners from the federal, state, or any other government agency are eligible to use this service.
• The third statement is untrue.
• The Department of Electronics and Information Technology created it. (The Department of Electronics and Information Technology was split off from the Ministry of Communications and Information Technology in 2016 to create the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology, which is a full-fledged ministry under the Union Government.)

Q. Take into account the following statements about rhinos:

1. There are a total of five rhino species that are still alive today.
2. The largest rhino species is the larger one-horned rhino, sometimes known as the “Indian rhino.”
3. Greater One-Horned Rhinos are classified as “Critically Endangered” by the IUCN.

Which of the aforementioned statements is true?

• 1 and 2 only
• 2 and 3 only
• 1 and 3 only
• 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

• The first and second claims are both true.
• There are a total of five rhino species that are still alive today.
• Greater one-horned rhinos, sometimes known as “Indian rhinos,”
• Native to both northern and southern Africa is the white rhinoceros.
• African countries in the east and south are home to the black rhino.
• Sunda rhino and lesser one-horned rhino are other names for the Javan rhino.
• The largest rhino species is the larger one-horned rhino, sometimes known as the “Indian rhino.”
• It can be recognised by its single black horn and its fold-covered, grey-brown hide.
• The third statement is untrue.

Indian rhino: Status of protection:

• Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List
• Appendix I of CITES
• Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972
• For many years, rhinos were pursued their horns. Hunting and habitat loss are threats to the five remaining rhino species.
• The most frequently encountered species in the wild and in captivity, the white rhino of Africa, has the lowest rate of loss in horn length, according to the study. The critically endangered Sumatran rhino experienced the highest rate of decline.
• This finding corresponds to patterns in other animals, such as those with smaller tusks in elephants and longer horns in wild sheep, which have undergone directional selection as a result of trophy hunting.

Q. Which of the following states/UTs is the principal home of the Pahari Ethnic Community, a linguistic community that was recently granted ST status?

• Himachal Pradesh
• Arunachal Pradesh
• Jammu and Kashmir
• Uttarakhand

Explanation

• The “Pahari ethnic group” has now been approved for inclusion on the Scheduled Tribes list of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir by the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST).
• The proposal demanded that J&K’s ST list be expanded to include the “Paddari tribe,” “Koli,” and “Gadda Brahman” populations.
• A linguistic community known as the Pahari community primarily resides in the Pir Panjal valley.
• They make up about 10–11% of the population in Jammu and Kashmir and are made up of Hindus, Muslims, and Sikhs.
• Their native speech, Pahari, is a dialect of the Pothwari language with its own distinct culture.
• They frequently live in rural areas and are heavily interested in cattle and agricultural operations.

Q. Which of the following is currently used as a standard for designating a community as a Scheduled Tribe?

8. Signs of primitive behaviour
9. Different culture
10. Solitude due to location
11. Reluctance to interact with the larger community
12. Backwardness

Select the right option from the list of codes below:

• 1, 2, 3 and 4
• 2, 3, 4 and 5
• 1, 3, 4 and 5
• 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Explanation

• The following criteria are currently used to define a community as a Scheduled Tribe:
• signs of primitive behaviour
• recognisable culture
• distance between locations,
• hesitancy when interacting with the public, and
• But the Constitution doesn’t explicitly state what these standards are.
• The process to be followed in the question of specifying Scheduled Tribes is outlined in Article 342.
• According to Clause (1) of Article 342, the President may designate tribes or tribal communities, or portions of these, as Scheduled Tribes with respect to any State or Union Territory, and when it is a State, after consulting with the Governor thereof.
• This grants the tribe, or a portion of it, constitutional standing, enabling these communities in their respective states/UTs to take use of the protections outlined in the Constitution.
• Any tribe or tribal community, including portions of these, may be included in or excluded from the List of Scheduled Tribes under Clause (2) of Article 342.
• A community designated as a Scheduled Tribe in one state need not also be so in another state or UT, according to the List of Scheduled Tribes, which is state/UT specific.

Q. Take into account the following statements regarding the Constitution’s Sixth Schedule:

1. For the administration of tribal lands in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Manipur, see the Constitution’s Sixth Schedule.
2. In accordance with Article 244(2) and Article 275(1) of the Constitution, this unique provision is offered.
3. By creating autonomous district councils, it aims to protect the rights of the native population (ADC).

Which of the aforementioned statements is true?

• 1 and 2 only
• 2 and 3 only
• 1 and 3 only
• 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

• The first claim is untrue.
• To protect the rights of the tribal community in these states, the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution calls for the management of tribal lands in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
• Both claims (2) and (3) are true.
• In accordance with Article 244(2) and Article 275(1) of the Constitution, this unique provision is offered.
• The Sixth Schedule establishes autonomous district councils to oversee the administration of these territories (ADCs).
• ADCs are organisations that represent a district to which the state legislature has granted varied degrees of autonomy under the Constitution.
• Autonomous districts and autonomous regions are exempt from the provisions of the Acts of Parliament or the State Legislature, or they do so with specific modifications and exclusions.
• The Governor is given authority over the councils.
• The Leh Apex Body and the Kargil Democratic Alliance are pushing for constitutional protections for Ladakh along the lines of the Constitution’s Sixth Schedule.
• The demand was made a day after the area experienced a complete shutdown in support of statehood, employment protection, and land protection.

Q. Take into account the following statements about the Performance Grading Index (PGI) for 2020–21:

10. It is a distinctive index for a thorough review of State and UT school education systems based on empirical data.
11. The Ministry of Education issues it.
12. The highest level, Level I, has been obtained by Kerala.

Which of the aforementioned statements is true?

• 1 and 2 only
• 2 and 3 only
• 1 and 3 only
• 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

• The first and second claims are both true.
• The Performance Grading Index (PGI) for States/UTs for 2020–21, a special index for evidence-based comprehensive study of school education systems across States/UTs, was produced by the Department of School Education and Literacy, Ministry of Education.
• The PGI structure consists of 1000 points across 70 indicators, which are categorised into Outcomes and Governance and Management, respectively (GM). These elements are further separated into five domains: governance process, infrastructure and facilities, equity, and learning outcomes (GP).
• PGI 2020-21 divided the States/UTs into ten categories, with Level 1 being the maximum grade that can be achieved by a State/UT scoring more than 950 out of a possible 1000 points. Level 10 is the lowest grade and is awarded for scores below 551.
• The third statement is untrue.
• In contrast to none in 2017–18 and four in 2019–20, a total of 7 States and UTs, including Kerala, Punjab, Chandigarh, Maharashtra, Gujarat, Rajasthan, and Andhra Pradesh, have obtained Level II (scoring 901–950) in 2020–21.
• The most recent entry into the highest achieved level of any State thus far are Gujarat, Rajasthan, and Andhra Pradesh.
• However, to date, no state has been able to reach the highest level of L1.