13 September 2022

Q1. Consider the following statements with respect to SARAS-3:

1. It is a radio telescope that is mounted on India’s first multi-wavelength astronomical observatory AstroSat.
2. It was built to detect extremely faint radio wave signals from the “Cosmic Dawn”.
3. SARAS-3 can be deployed on water bodies.

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 Only
2. 1 and 3 Only
3. 2 and 3 Only
4. 1, 2 and 3

C – Explanation

SARAS-3 is an indigenously built telescope that was developed by the researchers of Raman Research Institute, an autonomous institute of the Department of Science and Technology.  It is not mounted on India’s first multi-wavelength astronomical observatory AstroSat.Hence Statement 1 is not correct.SARAS-3 is a niche high-risk high-gain experimental effort to detect extremely faint radio wave signals from the depths of time, from our ‘Cosmic Dawn’. Hence Statement 2 is correct. Its chief distinguishing characteristic is that it can be deployed on water bodies. The many layers of soil were themselves a source of radio wave contamination for ground-based telescopes. Given that the purpose is to detect a highly elusive signal, water would be an ideal medium, the group reckoned, to make such a sensitive measurement. Hence Statement 3 is correct.

Q2. Consider the following statements with respect to NASA’s Perseverance rover:

1. It was designed as part of NASA’s Mars 2020 mission to explore the Jezero crater on Mars.
2. It uses the heat of plutonium’s radioactive decay for electric power.
3. The rover is carrying Ingenuity – the first helicopter to fly on Mars.

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 Only
2. 1 and 3 Only
3. 2 and 3 Only
4. 1, 2 and 3

D – Explanation

 The NASA Perseverance Rover is a part of the National Aeronautics and Space Administration’s (NASA) Mars 2020 Mission. It is nicknamed ‘Percy’.Hence Statement 1 is correct.Perseverance carries a radioisotope power system. This power system produces a dependable flow of electricity using the heat of plutonium’s radioactive decay as its “fuel.”Hence Statement 2 is correct.Perseverance also carried the Ingenuity helicopter (nicknamed Ginny). Ingenuity is a technology demonstration to test the first powered flight on Mars. Hence Statement 3 is correct.

Q3. Consider the following statements with respect to Pandavleni Caves:

1. These caves are early examples of Indian rock-cut architecture and represent Hinayan Buddhist tradition.
2. The caves have the magnificent idols of Buddha and the popular Jain Tirthankaras such as Vrishabhdeo.
3. These caves house the paintings of the Gupta Period.

Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 Only
2. 1 and 3 Only
3. 2 and 3 Only
4. 1, 2 and 3

A – Explanation

Nasik caves are ancient rock-cut caves built on the Trirashmi hill about 3004 feet above the sea, hence are called Trirashmi Caves. They are also known as Pandavleni Caves. The Pandavleni caves are a group of 24 caves which are Hinayana Faith Buddhist Caves. Hence Statement 1 is correct. The caves have the magnificent idols of Buddha and the popular Jain Tirthankaras such as Vrishabhdeo, the icons of Bodhisattva, Veer Manibhadra Ji and Ambikadevi are also there. Hence Statement 2 is correct. Trirashmi caves are great examples of intricate carving and craftsmanship with outstanding sculptures. The Inscriptions in the Nasik Caves belong to the Kshatrapa dynasty, the Satavahana dynasty. Hence Statement 3 is not correct.

Q4. River Umiam flows through which of these states?

1. Assam
2. Meghalaya
3. Mizoram
4. Arunachal Pradesh

 

1 and 2 only

3 only

4 only

2 only

A – Explanation

 The River Umiam takes its origin from the Shillong Peak, the highest point in Meghalaya .The Kiling/Umiam flows through the states of Assam and Meghalaya.It is a north flowing river originating from the northern slopes of the Khasi hill range.The river passes through Mawphu, Thieddieng, Nongsteng areas and enters the River Umiam Shella Basin, crossing the international border into Bangladesh. Hence Option A is correct.

Q5. In India, separation of judiciary from the executive is enjoined by:

1. The Preamble of the Constitution
2. A Directive Principle of state policy
3. The Seventh schedule
4. The conventional practice

B – Explanation

Article 50 of Constitution of India is a directive principle of state policy. It gives a direction to the State to keep Judiciary independent of the Executive, particularly in judicial appointments. Hence option B is correct

Q6. Which of the given statements is/are correct?

1. Palladium is used to coat electrodes that help control flow of electricity.
2. Palladium is used in making multilayer ceramic capacitors which are important to make smartphone screens and power circuit breakers.
3. Ukraine is the world’s largest producer of palladium.

 

1 and 2 Only

1 and 3 Only

2 and 3 Only

1, 2 and 3

A – Explanation

Most palladium is used in catalytic converters for cars. It is also used in jewelry and some dental fillings and crowns. It is used in the electronics industry in ceramic capacitors, found in laptop computers and mobile phones. Hence Statement 1 is correct the electronics sector, most palladium is used for multi-layer ceramic (chip) capacitors (MLCC). MLCCs store energy in electronic devices such as broadcasting equipment, mobile telephones, computers, electronic lighting, and high voltage circuits. Hence Statement 2 is correct Russia’s the leading global producer of palladium in recent years. Hence Statement 3 is not correct

Q7. Which of the given statements with respect to GenoMICC research project is/are INCORRECT?

1. It is a research study initiated by India that is exclusively aimed at mapping and identifying the genetic variation linked to severity of COVID-19.
2. It aims to undertake whole genome sequencing of thousands of individuals representing diverse ethnic groups from India.
3. It is an initiative of the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR).

 

1. 1 and 2 Only
2. 1 and 3 Only
3. 2 and 3 Only
4. 1, 2 and 3

D – Explanation

•  GenOMICC (Genetics of Mortality in Critical Care)
• It is a research study done by Scientists in the United Kingdomthat brings together clinicians and scientists from around the world to find the genetic factors that lead to critical illnesses.Hence Statement 1 is not correctResearchers from the GenOMICC consortium, led by the University of Edinburgh in partnership with Genomics England, sequenced the genomes of 7,491 patients from 224 intensive care units in the United Kingdom. Hence Statement 2 and 3 are not correctGenOMICC has been studying infections such as SARS (severe acute respiratory syndrome), MERS (Middle East respiratory syndrome), flu and other forms of critical illness.The overarching aim of genome association studies is to not only correlate genes but also design treatments.

Q8. Which of the given statements is/are correct with respect to the National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority?

1. In India, the prices of all drugs including branded and generic are regulated by the National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority.
2. It fixes the ceiling price of scheduled medicines in the first schedule of the Drugs (Prices Control) Order, 2013.It prepares the National List of Essential Medicines (NLEM) annually.

 

1. 1 and 2 Only
2. 1 and 3 Only
3. 2 and 3 Only
4. 1, 2 and 3

A – Explanation

The National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority(NPPA) was set up as an attached office of the Department of Chemicals and Petrochemicals on August 29, 1997.It is responsible for regulating the prices of drugs in the country and ensuring their availability, accessibility and affordability to every citizen of the country. Hence Statement 1 is correctNPPA aims to implement and enforce the provisions of the Drugs Price Control Order (DPCO), 1995/2013 in accordance with the powers delegated to it.Hence Statement 2 is correctThe Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India prepares the first National List of Essential Medicines of India.Hence Statement 3 is not correct

Q9. Which of the following phrases defines the nature of the ‘Hundi’ generally referred to in the sources of the post-Harsha period?

1. An advisory issued by the king to his subordinates
2. A diary to be maintained for daily accounts
3. A bill of exchange
4. An order from the feudal lord to his subordinates

C – Explanation

•  Harshavardhana was born in 590 AD to King Prabhakaravardhana of Sthaneshvara (Thanesar, Haryana). He belonged to the Pushyabhuti also called the Vardhana dynasty.Hiuen Tsang has given a very favorable account of king Harsha and his empire.
• Hundis refer to financial instruments evolved on the Indian subcontinent used in trade and credit transactions. They were used
• as remittance instruments (to transfer funds from one place to another),as credit instruments (to borrow money [IOUs]),for trade transactions (as bills of exchange).Hence Option C is correct

Q10. Consider the following statements:

1. National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) was set-up in 1986 under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
2. NCRB was established on the recommendations of Santhanam Committee.
3. NCRB has the responsibility of implementation of the Inter-operable Criminal Justice System (ICJS).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 Only
2. 1 and 3 Only
3. 2 and 3 Only
4. 1, 2 and 3

B – Explanation

•  National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) headquartered in New Delhi, was set-up in 1986 under the Ministry of Home Affairs to function as a repository of information on crime and criminals so as to assist the investigators in linking crime to the perpetrators. Hence, statement 1 is correct.It was set up based on the recommendations of the National Police Commission (1977-1981) and the MHA’s Task Force (1985). Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Functions:

• The Bureau has been entrusted to maintain National Database of Sexual Offenders (NDSO) and share it with the States/UTs on regular basis.NCRB has also been designated as the Central Nodal Agency to manage technical and operational functions of the ‘Online Cyber-Crime Reporting Portal’ through which any citizen can lodge a complaint or upload a video clip as an evidence of crime related to child pornography, rape/gang rape.
• The responsibility of implementation of the Inter-operable Criminal Justice System (ICJS) has also been given to the NCRB. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• ICJS is a national platform for enabling integration of the main IT system used for delivery of Criminal Justice in the country.

Q11. Which Amendment Act added three more grounds of restrictions on freedom of speech and expression, viz., public order, friendly relations with foreign states and incitement to an offence:

1. 24th Amendment Act
2. 42nd Amendment Act
3. 1st Amendment Act
4. 7th Amendment Act

Explanation:

First Amendment Act, 1951: Empowered the state to make special provisions for the advancement of socially and economically backward classes. Provided for the saving of laws providing for acquisition of estates, etc. Added Ninth Schedule to protect the land reform and other laws included in it from the judicial review. Added three more grounds of restrictions on freedom of speech and expression, viz., public order,  friendly relations with foreign states and incitement to an offence. Also, made the restrictions ‘reasonable’ and thus, justiciable in nature. Provided that state trading and nationalisation of any trade or business by the state is not to be invalid on the ground of violation of the right to trade or business.

Q12. Which of the following is/are correctly matched:

1. 37th Amendment Act: Omitted the Tenth Schedule.
2. 49th Amendment Act: Gave a constitutional sanctity to the Autonomous District Council in Tripura.
3. 58th Amendment Act: Provided for an authoritative text of the Constitution in Hindi language.

Select the correct answer using the code below

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. All of the above

Explanation:

37th Amendment Act: Provided legislative assembly and council of ministers for the Union Territory of Arunachal Pradesh.

49th Amendment Act: Gave a constitutional sanctity to the Autonomous District Council in Tripura.

58th Amendment Act: Provided for an authoritative text of the Constitution in Hindi language and gave the same legal sanctity to the Hindi version of the Constitution.

 Q13. Which of the following were added in the Thirty-Eighth Amendment Act, 1975:

1. Made the declaration of emergency by the president non-justiciable.
2. Made the promulgation of ordinances by the president, governors and administrators of union territories non-justiciable.
3. Empowered the president to declare different proclamations of national emergency on different grounds simultaneously.

Select the correct answer using the code below

1.   1 and 3 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. All of the above

Explanation:

Thirty-Eighth Amendment Act, 1975: Made the declaration of emergency by the president non-justiciable. Made the promulgation of ordinances by the president, governors, and administrators of union territories non justiciable. Empowered the president to declare different proclamations of national emergency on different grounds simultaneously.

 Q14. Which of the following statement is/are correct with respect to the 97th Constitutional Amendment Act:

1. It gave a constitutional status and protection to co-operative societies.
2. It made the right to form co-operative societies a fundamental right
3. It included a new Directive Principle of State Policy on promotion of co-operative societies.

Select the correct answer using the code below

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3.  2 and 3 only
4. All of the above

 Explanation:

The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2011 gave a constitutional status and protection to co-operative societies. In this context, it made the following three changes in the constitution:

1. It made the right to form co-operative societies a fundamental right (Article 191).
2. It included a new Directive Principle of State Policy on promotion of co-operative societies (Article 43-B2).
3. It added a new Part IX-B in the Constitution which is entitled “The Co-operative Societies” (Articles 243-ZH to 243-ZT).

Q15. In the Indian context, which of the following provisions can be amended by Simple Majority of the Parliament:

1. Acquisition and termination of Citizenship
2. Abolition or creation of legislative councils in states
3. Directive Principles of State Policy
4. Formation of new States

Select the correct answer from the code below:

1. 1 and 2
2. 1 and 4
3. 1, 2 and 4
4. All of the above

Explanation:

A number of provisions in the Constitution can be amended by a simple majority of the two Houses of Parliament outside the scope of Article 368. These provisions include- Admission or establishment of new states; Formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing states; Abolition or creation of legislative councils in states; Acquisition and termination of Citizenship; But to amend DPSP and FR’s, it requires Special majority of the Parliament.

 Q16. Consider the case of constitutional amendment bill, where the consent of the state legislatures is required. Which among the following statements is/are true?

1. The Constitution does not prescribe the time frame within which the state legislatures should ratify or reject an amendment submitted to them.
2. The Constitution is silent on the issue whether the states can withdraw their approval after according the same

Select the correct answer from the code below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. None of the above

Explanation:

When an amendment aims to modify an article related to distribution of powers between the States and the central government, or articles related to representation, it is necessary that the States must be consulted and that they give their consent. The Constitution does not prescribe the time frame within which the state legislatures should ratify or reject an amendment submitted to them.The Constitution is silent on the issue whether the states can withdraw their approval after according the same.

Q17. When a constitutional amendment aims to modify an article related to the distribution of powers between the States and the Union government, then which of the following type of majority is required to amend the Constitution?

1. Simple majority in the Parliament with ratification by not less than half of the States.
2. Special majority in the Parliament with ratification by not less than half of the States.
3. Simple majority in the Parliament.
4. Special majority in the Parliament.

Explanation:

• There are three different ways of amending the Indian Constitution. There are many articles in the Constitution which mention that these articles can be amended by a simple law of the Parliament. No special procedure for amendment (under Article 368) is required in such cases and there is no difference at all between an amendment and an ordinary law.
• For amending the remaining parts of the Constitution, a provision has been made in Article 368 of the Constitution. One method is that an amendment can be made by a special majority of the two Houses of Parliament. Amendment to the Constitution requires two different kinds of special majorities: in the first place, those voting in favor of the Amendment Bill should constitute at least half of the total strength of that House. Secondly, the supporters of the Amendment Bill must also constitute two-thirds of those who actually take part in voting
• The other method requires a special majority of the Parliament and the consent of half of the State legislatures. Apart from the provisions related to the federal structure, provisions about fundamental rights are also protected in this way.

 Q18.  As per Article 368 of the Constitution, the amendment of the Indian constitution can be initiated in:

1. Lok Sabha
2. Rajya Sabha
3. The office of the President by ordinance
4. State Legislatures
5. Council of Ministers

Select the correct answer using the code below

1. 1, 3 and 5 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2 and 5 only

Explanation:

An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament and not in the state legislatures. The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require prior permission of the president. The bill must be passed in each House by a special majority, that is, a majority (that is, more than 50 per cent) of the total membership of the House and a majority of two-thirds of the members of the House present and voting. Each House must pass the bill separately. In case of a disagreement between the two Houses, there is no provision for holding a joint sitting of the two Houses for the purpose of deliberation and passage of the bill.

Q19. The Constitution (91st Amendment) Act 2003, provides for which of the following?

1. The total number of ministers in the Central Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15 per cent of the total strength of the Lok Sabha.
2. A MP who is disqualified on the ground of defection shall also be disqualified to be appointed as a minister.
3. The total number of Council of Ministers in a state shall not exceed 15 per cent of the total strength of the Legislative Assembly of that state (including Delhi).

Select the correct answer using the code below

1. 2 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. All of the above

Explanation:

The 91st Amendment Act of 2003 has made the following provisions to limit the size of Council of Ministers, to debar defectors from holding public offices, and to strengthen the anti-defection law;

1. The total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Central Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15 per cent of the total strength of the Lok Sabha (Article 75).
2. A member of either House of Parliament belonging to any political party who is disqualified on the ground of defection shall also be disqualified to be appointed as a minister (Article 75).
3. The total number of ministers, including the Chief Minister, in the Council of Ministers in a state shall not exceed 15 per cent of the total strength of the Legislative Assembly of that state. But, the number of ministers, including the Chief Minister, in a state shall not be less than 12 (Article 164). But this provision does not apply to Delhi. The Constitution lays down that the strength of the Council of Ministers shall not be more than ten percent of the total number of members in the Assembly. Thus there are Seven Ministers in the Delhi Cabinet.
4. A member of either House of a state legislature belonging to any political party who is disqualified on the ground of defection shall also be disqualified to be appointed as a minister (Article 164).
5. A member of either House of Parliament or either House of a State Legislature belonging to any political party who is disqualified on the ground of defection shall also be disqualified to hold any remunerative political post. The expression “remunerative political post” means (i) any office under the Central Government or a state government where the salary or remuneration for such office is paid out of the public revenue of the concerned government; or (ii) any office under a body, whether incorporated or not, which is wholly or partially owned by the Central Government or a state government and the salary or remuneration for such office is paid by such body, except where such salary or remuneration paid is compensatory in nature (Article 361-B).
6. The provision of the Tenth Schedule (anti-defection law) pertaining to exemption from disqualification in case of split by one-third members of legislature party has been deleted. It means that the defectors have no more protection on grounds of splits.

Q20. Which of the following does not include aspects related to Co-operative societies under 97th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011?

1. Fundamental Rights
2. Directive Principles of State Policy
3. Fundamental duties
4. None of the above

Explanation:

The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2011 gave constitutional status and protection to cooperative societies. In this context, it made the following three changes in the constitution

1. It made the right to form cooperative societies a fundamental right (Article 19).
2. It included a new Directive Principle of State Policy on the promotion of cooperative societies (Article 43-B).
3. It added a new Part IX-B in the Constitution which is entitled “The Co-operative Societies” (Articles 243-ZH to 243-ZT).