26 August 2022

Q1. Consider the following statements:

1. The Governor of the state is necessarily the ex-officio chancellor of the universities in that state.
2. As a Chancellor, the Governor acts independent of the Council of Ministers in taking decisions on all University matters.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

B – Explanation

• Role of Governors in State Universities:
• In most cases, theGovernor of the state is the ex-officio chancellor of the universities in that state. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.While as Governor he functions with the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, as Chancellor he acts independently of the Council of Ministers and takes his own decisions on all University matters. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• In the Case of Central Universities:
• Under the Central Universities Act, 2009, and other statutes, thePresident of India shall be the Visitor of a central university.With their role limited to presiding over convocations, Chancellors in central universities are titular heads, who are appointed by the President in his capacity as Visitor.The Vice Chancellor too is appointed by the Visitor from panels of names picked by search and selection committees formed by the Union government.The Act adds that the President, as Visitor, shall have the right to authorize inspections of academic and non-academic aspects of the universities and to institute inquiries.

Q2. With reference to Pradhan Matri Fasal Bima Yojna, consider the following statements:

1. It has been in continuation along with the National Agricultural Insurance Scheme (NAIS).
2. It provide comprehensive insurance cover against the failure of the crop.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

B – Explanation

• Pradhan Matri Fasal Bima Yojna was launched in 2016 and is being administered by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.It replaced theNational Agricultural Insurance Scheme (NAIS) and Modified National Agricultural Insurance Scheme (MNAIS). Hence, statement 1 is not correct.Aim: To provide comprehensive insurance cover against the failure of the crop thus helping in stabilizing the income of the farmers. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Q3. Consider the following statements:

1. The pardoning power by the Governors of the states is immune from judicial review.
2. Article 161 bestows upon the Governor, the power to grant pardon in a case relating to capital punishment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. None

D – Explanation

• Statement 1 is not correct : In the Epuru Sudhakar Case, the Supreme Court held that “Exercise or non-exercise of the pardoning power by the President or Governor is not immune from judicial review”. SC held that judicial review of the order of the President or the Governor under Article 72 or Article 161 of the Constitution, can be impugned on the following grounds:
• That the order has been passed without application of mindThat the order is mala fideThat the order has been passed on extraneous or wholly irrelevant considerationsThat relevant materials have been kept out of considerationThat the order suffers from arbitrariness.Statement 2 is not correct :Article 161 mentions that the Governor of a State shall have the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence against any law relating to a matter to which the executive power of the State extends. Previously, the governor could not pardon the death sentence, which only the Indian President could do. But recently in August 2021, the Supreme Court held that the Governor of a State can pardon prisoners, including death row ones, even before they have served a minimum of 14 years of a prison sentence.

Q4. With respect to Attorney General (AG) of India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. 1. The President of India appoints a person who is qualified for the post of Supreme Court Judge.
   2. He has the right to vote when he participates in the proceedings of the Indian Parliament as he is part of the Union Executive.
   3. He can practise privately too as he is not debarred from private legal practice.

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

C – Explanation

• Statement 1 is correct : the President of India appoints a person who is qualified for the post of Supreme Court Judge.Statement 2 is not correct : AG has got the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both the Houses of Parliament but has no right to votewhen he participates in the proceedings of the Indian Parliament.Statement 3 is correct : AG can practise privately too as he is not debarred from private legal practice.

Q5. Consider the following statements:

1. According to Natya Shastra, ‘Odhra Magadha’ is the earliest form of present-day Odissi Dance.
2. Tribhanga is closely associated with Odissi.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. None

C – Explanation

• Statement 1 is correct : According to Natya Shastra, ‘Odhra Magadha’ is the earliest form of present-day Odissi Dance.Statement 2 is correct : The tribhanga is an extremely feminine position where the body is diverted at the neck, middle and the knees. Tribhanga body posture is associated with the Odissi classical dance form.

Q6. With reference to ‘palm oil’, consider the following statements:

1. The palm oil tree is native to Southeast Asia.
2. The palm oil is a raw material for some industries producing lipstick and perfumes.
3. The palm oil can be used to produce biodiesel.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

B – Explanation

• Statement 1 is not correct : Oil palm trees are native to Africa and were brought to South-East Asia as an ornamental tree crop.Statement 2 is correct : palm oil is used as a raw material in the lipstick and perfumes industries.Statement 3 is correct :palm oil can be used to produce biodiesel.

Q7. Consider the following statements:

1. Disguised Unemployment arises from the mismatch between the jobs available in the market and the skills of the available workers.
2. Structural Unemployment arises wherein more people are employed than actually needed.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

D – Explanation

• Disguised Unemployment: It is a phenomenon wherein more people are employed than actually needed. It is primarily traced to the agricultural and unorganized sectors of India. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• Structural Unemployment:It is a category of unemployment arising from the mismatch between the jobs available in the market and the skills of the available workers in the market. Many people in India do not get jobs due to lack of requisite skills and due to poor education level, it becomes difficult to train them. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

Q8. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Section 144 of CrPC, 1973 (Code of Criminal Procedure):

1. This order can be passed against a particular individual or general public.
2. Educational institutions do not remain closed upon the imposition of Section 144.
3. No order under this section can remain in force for a period of more than 2 months.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

C – Explanation

• Section 144 CrPC
• This law empowers the magistrate of any state or union territory in Indiato pass an order prohibiting the gathering of four or more people in a specified area. It is imposed in urgent cases of nuisance or apprehended danger of some event that has the potential to cause trouble or damage to human life or property. This order can bepassed against a particular individual or general public. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Features of Section 144:
• It places restrictions on handling or transporting any kind of weapon in the given jurisdiction. The maximum punishment for such an act is three years.According to the order under this section, there shall be no movement of public and all educational institutions shall also remain closed. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.Further, there will be a complete bar on holding any kind of public meeting or rallies during the period of operation of this order.It also empowers the authorities to block internet accessin the region.The ultimate purpose of Section 144 is to maintain peace and order in the areas where trouble could erupt to disrupt the regular life.
• Duration of Section 144 Order:
• No order under this section can remain in force for a period of more than 2 months. Hence, statement 3 is correct.Under the state government’s discretion, it can choose to extend the validity for two more months with the maximum validity extendable to six months.

Q9. Consider the following statements with reference to Feroz Shah Tughlaq:

1. He was the third ruler of the Tughlaq dynasty.
2. He was the one who started the imposition of Jaziya or Jizya.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

C – Explanation

• Feroz Shah Tughlaq:
• He was born in 1309 and ascended the throne of Delhi after the demise of his cousin Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq.He was the third ruler of the Tughlaq dynastythat ruled over Delhi from 1320 to 1412 AD. Tughlaq was in power from 1351 to 1388 AD. Hence statement 1 is correct.He was the one who started the imposition of Jaziya. Jaziya’ or ‘Jizya’ implies a per capita yearly taxation historically levied in the form of financial charge on permanent non-Muslim subjects of a state governed by Islamic law to fund public expenditures of the state. Hence statement 2 is correct.He provided the principle of inheritance to the armed forces where the officers were permitted to rest and send their children to the army in their place. However, they were not paid in real money but by land.The British called him the ‘father of the irrigation department’ because of the many gardens and canals that he built.

Q10. With reference to Chenab River, consider the following statements:

1. It rises in the upper Himalayas in the Lahaul and Spiti district of Himachal Pradesh state.
2. It joins Jhelum river in the plain regions of Pakistan.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

A – Explanation

• Chenab river rises in the upper Himalayas in the Lahaul and Spiti district of Himachal Pradesh state.Hence, statement 1 is correct.The river is formed by the confluence of two rivers, Chandra and Bhaga, at Tandi, 8 km southwest of Keylong, in the Lahaul and Spiti district.The Bhaga River originates from Surya taal lake, which is situated a few kilometers west of the Bara-lacha la pass in Himachal Pradesh. The Chandra River originates from glaciers east of the same pass (near Chandra Taal).It flows through the Jammu region of Jammu and Kashmir into the plains of Punjab, Pakistan, before flowing into the Indus River. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.