26 August 2024

Q1. With reference to the “State of Food Security and Nutrition in the World 2024” (SOFI 2024) report, consider the following statements:

1. The SOFI 2024 report is published by FAO, IFAD, UNICEF, WFP, and WHO.
2. The report indicates that Asia has the highest percentage of undernourished people in the world.
3. The cost of a healthy diet in purchasing power parity (PPP) terms is highest in Oceania.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans: (b)

Explanation:

• Statement 1: The SOFI 2024 report is indeed published by FAO, IFAD, UNICEF, WFP, and WHO. So, this statement is correct.
• Statement 2: Asia harbors the largest number of undernourished people, but not the highest percentage; that distinction belongs to Africa. Therefore, this statement is incorrect.
• Statement 3: The cost of a healthy diet is highest in Latin America and the Caribbean, not Oceania. This statement is also incorrect.
• Thus, only one statement is correct.

Q2. Consider the following statements regarding India’s food security and nutrition as highlighted in the SOFI 2024 report:

1. India has the highest prevalence of anaemia among women aged 15 to 49 years in South Asia.
2. The report shows that 55.6% of Indians are unable to afford a healthy diet.
3. India has the highest prevalence of stunting among children under five years globally.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

Ans: (a)

Explanation:

• Statement 1: India does have the highest prevalence of anaemia among women aged 15 to 49 years in South Asia, making this statement correct.
• Statement 2: The SOFI 2024 report indeed highlights that 55.6% of Indians cannot afford a healthy diet. So, this statement is also correct.
• Statement 3: While India has a high prevalence of stunting (31.7%), it does not have the highest globally. Thus, this statement is incorrect.
• Thus, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Q3. With reference to the “Maharashtra Special Public Security Bill, 2024,” consider the following statements:

1. The Bill allows for the prosecution of individuals associated with unlawful organizations without the need for prior permission from higher authorities.
2. The offences under this Bill are non-cognisable and bailable.
3. The Bill expands the definition of “unlawful activity” to include acts that interfere with public order.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans: (b)

Explanation:

• Statement 1: The Maharashtra Special Public Security Bill, 2024, permits faster prosecution by allowing district magistrates or police commissioners to grant necessary permissions, bypassing the need for sanction from higher authorities. Thus, Statement 1 is correct.

• Statement 2: The offences under this Bill are cognisable, allowing arrests without a warrant, and non-bailable. Therefore, Statement 2 is incorrect.

• Statement 3: The Bill indeed expands the definition of “unlawful activity” to include acts that interfere with public order, administration of law, and generating fear among the public. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.

• Conclusion: Thus, two of the statements are correct, making option (b) the correct answer.

Q4. Consider the following statements about the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA) in comparison to the Maharashtra Special Public Security (MSPS) Bill, 2024:

1. The UAPA requires the confirmation of unlawful organization declarations by a tribunal, whereas the MSPS Bill allows an advisory board to perform this function.
2. Both UAPA and the MSPS Bill have similar definitions of “unlawful activity.”
3. Under the UAPA, the central government can declare any activity unlawful, while the MSPS Bill restricts this power to the state government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 3 only

Ans: (b)

Explanation:

• Statement 1: The UAPA requires confirmation of unlawful organization declarations by a tribunal led by a High Court judge, while the MSPS Bill allows an advisory board of ex-judges or eligible persons to perform this function. Therefore, Statement 1 is correct.
• Statement 2: The definitions of “unlawful activity” under the UAPA and the MSPS Bill are not similar. The MSPS Bill expands the definition to include broader aspects like interference with public order. Thus, Statement 2 is incorrect.
• Statement 3: Under the UAPA, the central government has the authority to declare any activity unlawful, whereas the MSPS Bill restricts this power to the state government of Maharashtra. Therefore, Statement 3 is correct.
• Conclusion: Statements 1 and 3 are correct, making option (b) the correct answer.

Q5. With reference to the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012, consider the following statements:

1. The POCSO Act criminalizes consensual sexual activities involving minors.
2. The POCSO Act includes provisions for the death penalty for aggravated sexual offenses against children.
3. The POCSO Act mandates that every trial must be completed within a period of six months from the date of cognizance.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct. The POCSO Act criminalizes all sexual activities involving minors, even if consensual. The law does not differentiate based on the nature of the relationship, treating all sexual activities involving minors as criminal offenses.

• Statement 2 is correct. The POCSO Act, 2012, includes provisions for severe punishments, including the death penalty for aggravated sexual offenses against children. This was introduced to deter the most heinous crimes against minors.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The POCSO Act mandates that every trial should be completed within a period of one year from the date of cognizance, not six months. Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the Karnataka High Court’s recent decision on a case under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012:

1. The High Court quashed the case on the grounds that the marriage between the accused and the victim had taken place.
2. The Court mandated that criminal proceedings can be revived if the accused abandons his wife and child in the future.
3. The decision reflects the court’s consideration of social realities and the potential vulnerability of the victim and her child.

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct. The Karnataka High Court quashed the POCSO case based on the fact that the accused had married the victim, which both families supported.
• Statement 2 is correct. The Court stipulated that if the accused abandons his wife and child in the future, the criminal proceedings could be revived. This was included to ensure protection for the mother and child.
• Statement 3 is correct. The decision indeed reflects the court’s consideration of the social realities surrounding the case, such as the potential vulnerability of the victim and her child, and the likelihood of the victim turning hostile during trial proceedings.
• All the statements are correct, hence the correct answer is (d).

Q7. With reference to the National Mission for Manuscripts, consider the following statements:

1. It was established in 2003 by the Ministry of Tourism and Culture.
2. The mission’s primary objectives include documentation, conservation, and online dissemination of manuscripts.
3. India’s manuscript collection is estimated to be about 5 million manuscripts.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans: (b)

Explanation:

• Statement 1: The National Mission for Manuscripts was indeed established in 2003, but it was set up by the Ministry of Tourism and Culture, Government of India. So, 1 is correct.
• Statement 2: The mission’s primary objectives include documentation, conservation, digitization, and online dissemination of manuscripts, which aligns with the stated goals. So, 2 is correct.
• Statement 3: India is estimated to possess around 10 million manuscripts, not 5 million. Therefore, 3 is incorrect.

Q8. Consider the following statements regarding the National Culture Fund (NCF):

1. NCF was established in 1996 under the Charitable Endowment Act, 1890.
2. It primarily serves as a mechanism to finance the protection, restoration, and development of India’s cultural heritage through Public-Private Partnerships.
3. The NCF is managed by an Executive Committee chaired by the Prime Minister.

Which of the given above statements is/are not correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Ans: (b)

Explanation:

• Statement 1: The National Culture Fund was indeed established in 1996 under the Charitable Endowment Act, 1890, to mobilize resources for cultural preservation. So, 1 is correct.
• Statement 2: NCF functions as a financing mechanism for cultural preservation and development through Public-Private Partnerships. So, 2 is correct.
• Statement 3: The NCF is managed by a Council chaired by the Minister of Culture and an Executive Committee chaired by the Secretary, not the Prime Minister. Thus, 3 is incorrect.

Q9. With reference to the recent induction of Leander Paes and Vijay Amritraj into the International Tennis Hall of Fame, consider the following statements:

1. Leander Paes has been inducted into the Contributor Category of the Hall of Fame.
2. Vijay Amritraj was awarded the Padma Bhushan in 2014.
3. The International Tennis Hall of Fame is located in Newport, Rhode Island, United States.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans: (c)

Explanation:

• Statement 1: Leander Paes has been inducted into the Player Category, not the Contributor Category. So, Statement 1 is incorrect.
• Statement 2: Vijay Amritraj was awarded the Padma Shri in 1983, not the Padma Bhushan. So, Statement 2 is incorrect.
• Statement 3: The International Tennis Hall of Fame is indeed located in Newport, Rhode Island, United States. So, Statement 3 is correct.
• Additional Note: Statements about the Hall of Fame’s location and its recognition of Paes and Amritraj’s achievements highlight the accurate facts in this context.

Q10. Consider the following statements regarding the International Tennis Hall of Fame and its recent inductees:

1. Leander Paes has won 18 Grand Slam titles in singles and doubles combined.
2. Vijay Amritraj was a United Nations Ambassador for Peace in 2001.
3. The International Tennis Hall of Fame honors outstanding contributions to tennis and is located in the U.S.

Which of the given above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) All three

Ans: (b)

Explanation:

• Statement 1: Leander Paes has won 18 Grand Slam titles, but these are in doubles and mixed doubles, not singles. So, Statement 1 is incorrect.
• Statement 2: Vijay Amritraj was indeed appointed as a United Nations Ambassador for Peace in 2001. So, Statement 2 is correct.
• Statement 3: The International Tennis Hall of Fame is located in Newport, Rhode Island, U.S., and it honors outstanding contributions to the sport. So, Statement 3 is correct.