27 July 2022

Q1. Consider the following statements:

1. The state legislators are given exclusive power to make laws relating to betting and gambling.
2. Staking money or property on the outcome of a ‘game of skill’ is prohibited and subjects the guilty parties to criminal sanctions.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 Only
2. 2 Only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

A : Explanation

• Legality of Games in India:
• The state legislators are, vide Entry No. 34 of List II (State List) of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India, given exclusive power to make laws relating to betting and gambling. Hence, statement 1 is correct.Most Indian states regulate gaming on the basis of a distinction in law between ‘games of skill’ and ‘games of chance’.As such, a ‘dominant element’ test is to be utilised to determine whether chance or skill is the dominating element in determining the result of the game.This ‘dominant element’ may be determined by examining whether factors such as superior knowledge, training, experience, expertise or attention of a player have a material impact on the outcome of the game.Staking money or property on the outcome of a ‘game of chance’ is prohibitedand subjects the guilty parties to criminal sanctions.However, placing any stakes on the outcome of a ‘game of skill’ is not illegal per se and may be permissible. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.It is important to note that the Supreme Court recognized that no game is purely a ‘game of skill’ and almost all games have an element of chance.

Q2. With reference to the Most Favoured Nation (MFN), consider the following statements:

1. It is a provision under the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT), 1994.
2. Under this, a country with MFN status will not be treated worse than any other nation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 Only
2. 2 Only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

C : Explanation

• World Trade Organisation (WTO) members commit to treating other members equally so they can all benefit from each other’s lowest tariffs, highest import quotas and fewest trade barriers for goods and services.This principle of non-discrimination is known as Most Favoured Nation (MFN) treatment.This is one of the measures which ensures trade without discrimination. Another one is ‘National Treatment ‘.Article 1 of the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT), 1994, requires every WTO member country to accord MFN status to all other member countries. Hence, statement 1 is correct.A nation with MFN status will not be discriminated against and will not be treated worse than any other nation with MFN status.Grant someone a special favour (such as a lower customs duty rate for one of their products) and you have to do the same for all other WTO members. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Q3. Which of the following fundamental rights are available to both citizens and foreigners, except enemy aliens?

Article 14Article 19Article 21Article 25Article 29

1. 1, 3 and 4 only
2. 1, 2, and 5 only
3. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

A : Explanation

• Fundamental Rights available only to citizens and not to foreigners are:
• Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of race, religion, caste, gender or place of birth (Article 15).Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment (Article 16).Protection of freedom of speech & expression (Article 19).Protection of the culture, language and script of minorities(Article 29).Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions (Article 30).
• Hence Fundamental Rights available to both citizens and foreigners are Article 14, Article 21 and Article 25. Hence option A is correct.

Q4. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Border infrastructure creation is largely the responsibility of the Ministry of Home Affairs.
2. Department of Border Management under the MHA deals with the management of borders, including coastal borders, strengthening of border guarding mechanisms and creation of related infrastructure, border areas development, etc.

1. 1 Only
2. 2 Only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

C : Explanation

• Ministry of Home Affairs
• The Ministry of Home Affairs looks after the creation of border infrastructure. Hence Statement 1 is correct.Department of Border Management under the MHA deals with the management of borders, including coastal borders, strengthening of border guarding mechanisms and creation of related infrastructure, border areas development, etc. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
• The Department is further organized into two divisions –
• Border Management Division – IBorder Management Division – II

Q5.  ‘PM SVANidhi’ scheme was launched to benefit:

1. Small and marginal farmers
2. Tribal artisans
3. Street vendors
4. Women-led Self-help Groups

C : Explanation

• The PM Street Vendor’s AtmaNirbhar Nidhi (PM SVANidhi) was launched by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs on June 01, 2020, for providing affordable Working Capital loans to street vendors to resume their livelihoods that have been adversely affected due to Covid-19 lockdown.
• It is a Central Sector Scheme. No funds are released to the States for disbursal to beneficiaries. The loan amount is directly released to the beneficiaries by the Lending Institutions.Street Vendors can avail of a working capital loan of up to Rs. 10,000, which is repayable in monthly instalments in the tenure of one year.On timely/early repayment of the loan, an interest subsidy @ 7% per annum will be credited to the bank accounts of beneficiaries through Direct Benefit Transfer on a quarterly basis.There will be no penalty on the early repayment of the loan. Implemented by Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI).Hence option C is correct.

Q6. Consider the following statements about the Australia Group (AG):

1. It seeks to ensure that exports do not contribute to the development of chemical or biological weapons.
2. The members are obliged to fulfil their obligations under the Chemical Weapons Convention and Biological & Toxin Weapons Convention.
3. India joined the grouping as a founding member in 1985.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 Only
2. 1 and 3 Only
3. 2 and 3 Only
4. 1, 2 and 3

A : Explanation

• The Australia Group (AG) is an informal forum of countries which, through the harmonisation of export controls, seeks to ensure that exports do not contribute to the development of chemical or biological weapons. Hence, statement 1 is correct.The formation of the Australia Group (AG) in 1985 was prompted by Iraq’s use of chemical weapons during the Iran-Iraq War (1980-1988).Coordination of National export control measures assists Australia Group members to fulfil their obligations under the Chemical Weapons Convention and Biological & Toxin Weapons Convention.Hence, statement 2 is correct.It has 43 members (including the European union). The members work on a consensus basis. The annual meeting is held in Paris, France.India joined (as 43^rd Participant) the Australia Group (AG) on 19^th January 2018.The Australia Group decided to admit India as the Group’s through a consensus decision. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Q7. Consider the following statements about the ‘White phosphorus munitions’:

1. It is a weapon that uses the allotrope of the chemical element phosphorus.
2. It reacts with air to produce an immediate blanket of phosphorus pentoxide vapour.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 Only
2. 2 Only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

C : Explanation

• White phosphorus munitions are weapons that use one of the common allotropes of the chemical element phosphorus. Hence, statement 1 is correct.White phosphorus is pyrophoric (it is ignited by contact with air), burns fiercely, and can ignite cloth, fuel, ammunition, and other combustibles.Apart from this, it is also used in smoke, illumination, and burning elements of tracer ammunition.In addition to its offensive capabilities, white phosphorus is a highly efficient smoke-producing agent, reacting with air to produce an immediate blanket of phosphorus pentoxide vapour. Hence, statement 2 is correct.Effects: In addition to direct injuries caused by fragments of their casings, white phosphorus munitions can cause injuries in two main ways: burn injuries and vapour inhalation

Q8. Consider the following statements:

1. Flood Plain Zoning has been recognized as an effective structural measure for flood management.
2. The basic concept of flood plain zoning is to regulate land use in the flood plains to restrict the damage caused by floods.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 Only
2. 2 Only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

• Flood Plain Zoning has been recognized as an effective non- structural measure for flood management. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.The basic concept of flood plain zoning is to regulate land use in the flood plains to restrict the damage caused by floods. Hence, statement 2 is correct.It aims at determining the locations and the extent of areas for developmental activities in such a fashion that the damage is reduced to a minimum.It envisages laying down limitations on development of both the unprotected as well as protected areas.
• Marks Awarded:
• Marks:
• 00
• Negative Marks:
• 66
•   Difficulty Level:      Very Easy
•       Subject:
• Geography > Indian Geography > Natural Disasters
•     Correct Answer:                                            b

Q9. With reference to Non-Performing Asset (NPA), consider the following statements:

1. The debt is classified as non-performing, when the loan payments have not been made for a minimum period of 365 days.
2. Net non-performing assets are the sum of all the loans that have been defaulted by the individuals who have acquired loans from the financial institution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 Only
2. 2 Only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

D: Explanation

• Non-Performing Asset (NPA) refers to a classification for loans or advances that are in default or are in arrears on scheduled payments of principal or interest.In most cases, debt is classified as non-performing, when the loan payments have not been made for a minimum period of 90 days. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.Gross non-performing assets are the sum of all the loans that have been defaulted by the individuals who have acquired loans from the financial institution.Net non-performing assets are the amount that is realized after provision amount has been deducted from the gross non-performing assets. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Q10. Which amongst the given States have introduced an ‘anti-lynching Bill’ to deal with mob-lynchings and hate crimes?

KarnatakaMaharashtraManipurRajasthan

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2, 3 and 4 only
4. 3 and 4 only

D : Explanation

• Bills have been passed against mob lynching in the past four years by at least 4 States.
• They have not been implemented, with the Union government taking a view that lynching is not defined as a crime under the Indian Penal Code (IPC).
• Year DevelopmentDescription2018Manipur Assembly passed the Manipur Protection from Mob Violence Bill, 2018Recommending life imprisonment for those involved in mob violence if it led to death. The Bill is still being examined by the Ministry.2019Rajasthan Assembly passed the Rajasthan Protection from Lynching Bill, 2019Providing for life imprisonment and a fine ranging from ₹1 lakh to ₹5 lakh to those convicted in cases of mob lynching leading to the victim’s death.
• Hence Option ‘d’ is correct.